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NEW QUESTION 200
Which two connectivity modes does Cisco RISE support? (Choose two.)

A.    Directly connected. No virtual port channel is supported.
B.    Indirectly connected. Only Layer 3 adjacent.
C.    Indirectly connected. Only Layer 2 adjacent
D.    Indirectly connected. Layer 2 and Layer 3 adjacent.
E.    Directly connected. Virtual port channel is supported.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 201
Which three commands must be run to enable support of adapter-fex on an interface on Cisco Nexus Switch? (Choose three.)

A.    feature adapter-fex
B.    feature-set adapter-fex
C.    feature-set virtualization
D.    feature fex
E.    switchport mode adapter-fex
F.    switchport mode vntag

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 202
Which three distinct categories are within the cloud computing stack? (Choose three.)

A.    PaaS
B.    LaaS
C.    DaaS
D.    NaaS
E.    SaaS
F.    IaaS

Answer: AEF

NEW QUESTION 203
Which two statements about the Cisco Open SDN Controller are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It can be used in multivendor environments.
B.    It is a commercial distribution based on the OpenFlow controller.
C.    The controller is available as an appliance only.
D.    Security is enforced by using the Open Services Gateway Initiative framework.
E.    Your own, new network service functions can be added via Java APls.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 204
……

NEW QUESTION 205
Which three statements about the VLAN Trunking Protocol version 3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows only the primary server to make VLAN Trunking Protocol configuration changes.
B.    It supports 4K VLANs.
C.    It is not compatible with VLAN Trunking Protocol version 1 or 2.
D.    It does not support private VLANs.
E.    It provides enhanced security with hidden and secret passwords.
F.    It supports manual configuration of VLANs on a device configured as a VLAN Trunking Protocol client.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 206
Which three options are valid local disk configuration policies? (Choose three.)

A.    RAID 40
B.    RAID 60
C.    RAID 7
D.    RAID 30
E.    RAID 50
F.    RAID 6

Answer: BEF

NEW QUESTION 207
Which two statements about VLAN Trunking Protocol are true? (Choose two.)

A.    VIAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN consistency by managing the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs within a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain.
B.    On Cisco Nexus switches, VLAN Trunking Protocol is enabled by default.
C.    Layer 2 trunk interfaces, Layer 2 port channels, and virtual port channels support VLAN Trunking Protocol functionality.
D.    VLAN Trunking Protocol is only supported on Layer 2 trunk interfaces.
E.    VLAN Trunking Protocol is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains the interface VLAN configuring within a VLAN Trunking Protocol domain.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 208
Which three options are SDN Southbound protocols? (Choose three.)

A.    Puppet
B.    OVSDB
C.    APl
D.    OpenFlow
E.    VXLAN
F.    PCEP

Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 209
……

NEW QUESTION 211
Which option isthe default FC-MAP?

A.    0e:fe:00
B.    0f:fe:00
C.    0e:fc:00
D.    0f:fc:00

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 212
Which four tables are maintained by vPath? (Choose four.)

A.    service table
B.    path table
C.    IP/MAC table
D.    service node table
E.    flow table
F.    Neighbor table
G.    session table

Answer: ABDE

NEW QUESTION 213
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Which best describes what multi-suite tagging enables?

A.    The ability to maintain multiple report suites within a single company.
B.    The ability to review individual and aggregate data sets in your company.
C.    The ability to maintainseveral s.code.js files for multiple company domains in a single file
D.    The ability to separate out development test data from business production data in your company report suites.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
What are the maximum number of items that can be displayed in a Trended graph?

A.    1
B.    5
C.    10
D.    30

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
A visitor demonstrates the following behavior in terms of time spent:

What is the average time spent on page A?

A.    12.5 minutes
B.    25 minutes
C.    20 minutes
D.    15 minutes

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Which three reports can have a segment applied to them? (Choose three.)

A.    Next Page Flow
B.    Fallout
C.    Marketing Channel Overview
D.    Products

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 5
Which function does Step 1 of the Adobe Report Builder Wizard provide?

A.    Report Suite, Report Selection, Segments, Date Ranges, Date Granularity
B.    ReportSuite, Report Selection, Segments, Date Ranges, Metrics and Dimensions
C.    Report Suite, Report Selection, Report Layout, Date Ranges, Date Granularity
D.    Report Selection, Segments, Date Ranges, Date Granularity, Filtering Options

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
When viewing an established Dashboard what options are available to change all reportlets on that Dashboard at once?

A.    Date
B.    Report Suite, Segment and Date
C.    Date and Report Suite
D.    Segment and Report Suite

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
You are using a filter to eliminate a select group of line items. What does the metric total number represent?

A.    The total including the line items thatare not filtered
B.    The site total for the selected metric
C.    The percentage of the filtered line items compared against the Report Suite total
D.    The total of the line items filtered

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Identify the preconfigured authentication scheme that is used in the Oracle Access Management 11gR2 federation service.

A.    OIFScheme
B.    OIFLDAPPlugin
C.    OIFMTLDAPPlugin
D.    FederationScheme

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Identify two ways in which you can specify trusted Identity Provider (Idp) partners while configuring Service Provides (SP) in Oracle Access Management Identity Federation.

A.    Manually create a new Idp configuration and fill the form with all attributes.
B.    Import the metadata file generated from an Idp deployment to create a new Identity Provider configuration.
C.    Automatic discovery of an Idp populates the configuration data.
D.    A request can be broadcast to all IdPs and the one that matches returns its configuration data is populated.
E.    A sample XML configuration file is provided, which needs to be modified, and the Server needs to be restarted.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3
When defining an attribute on the Relying Party Partner Profile in Security Token Service, which three types of attribute sources are supported?

A.    User Store (LDAP)
B.    CSV File
C.    Incoming Token Data
D.    XML File
E.    Static Value
F.    User Store (Oracle Identity Analytics Identity Warehouse)

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about the interaction between a UMS component in the SOA Suite and OAAM?

A.    OAAM generates and sends the One Time Pin (OTP) directly to a user.
B.    OAAM generates and sends the OTP to UMS, which submits it to a customer.
C.    OAAM communicates with the UMS, which generates and submits the OTP to a customer.
D.    OAAM sends the OTP to a customer directly and UMS validates the PIN.
E.    UMS generates and sends the OTP direcly to a user.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Identify the mandatory attribute that is used when creating an application profile for a mobile application in Single Sign-On with Oracle Access Management Mobile and Social services.

A.    userIdBasicAuth
B.    Mobile.clientRegHandle.baseSecret
C.    sharedSecret4BasicAuth
D.    baseSecret4BasicAuth

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
Identify two protocols that the Oracle Access Management Social module supports for Authentication and Authorization using Internet Identity services. (Choose two.)

A.    OpenID
B.    WebID
C.    BrowserID
D.    Windows Live ID
E.    OAuth

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 7
Which are the four valid token types that Oracle Mobile and Social can return to a mobile client on authentication? (Choose four.)

A.    SAML Token
B.    User Token
C.    SecurID Token
D.    Access Token
E.    Client Registration Handle
F.    Client Token
G.    LTPA Token

Answer: BCEF

NEW QUESTION 8
……


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NEW QUESTION 167
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. Configuration Manager has Asset Intelligence enabled. You do not have an Asset Intelligence synchronization point. In the Configuration Manager Console, you discover that a number of Inventoried Software entries are listed in an uncategorized state. You need to change the state of the items that are listed as uncategorized. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Assign a validated family to each entry.
B.    Click Request Catalog Update for each entry.
C.    Click ResolveConflict for each entry.
D.    Assign a user-defined label for each entry.
E.    Assign a user-defined family to each entry.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: To request a catalog update for uncategorized software titles:
– In the Configuration Manager console, clickAssets and Compliance.
– In the Assets and Compliance workspace, click Asset Intelligence, and then click Inventoried Software.
– Select a product name or select multiple product names, to be submitted to System Center Online for categorization. Onlyuncategorized inventoried software titles can be submitted to System Center Online for categorization.
– On Home tab, in the Product group, click Request Catalog Update.
Etc.
E: The Asset Intelligence validation state of uncategorized represents that a catalog item has not been defined by System Center Online researchers, the item has not been submitted to System Center Online for categorization, and the administrator has not assigned a user-defined categorization value.
To modify the categorizations for software titles:
– In the Configuration Manager console, click Assets and Compliance.
– In the Assets and Compliance workspace, click Asset Intelligence, and then click Inventoried Software.
– Select a software title or select multiple software titles for which youwant to modify categorizations.
– On the Home tab, in the Properties group, click Properties.
– On the General tab, you can modify the following categorization information:Product Name: Specifies the name of the inventoried software title.Vendor: Specifiesthe name of the vendor that developed the inventoried software title.Category: Specifies the software category that is currently assigned to the inventoried software title.Family: Specifies the software family that is currently assigned to the inventoried software title.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg712316.aspx#BKMK_RequestCatalogUpdate
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg681998.aspx

NEW QUESTION 168
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1(SP1) environment. You discover that information about installed applications fails to appear in the report named Software registered in Add Remove Programs on a specific client computer. You need to ensure that information about installed applications appears in the report. What should you do?

A.    Modify the Enable hardwareinventory on clients setting.
B.    Enable a default WMI class in the Hardware Inventory Classes list.
C.    Modify the Enable software inventory on clients setting.
D.    Add a file name to the Hardware Inventory configuration.
E.    Add a WMI class to the HardwareInventory Classes list.
F.    Add a file name to the Software Inventory configuration.
G.    Add a file name to Software Metering.
H.    Add a WMI class to the Sms_def.mof file.
I.    Select Collect NOIDMIF files in Hardware Inventory.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 169
You have a test network that contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. You create an operating system deployment task sequence that deploys an image of Windows 8.1. You deploy the task sequence to the All Systems collection. You discover that client computers in the test environment are not being re-imaged automatically. You need to ensure that all of the client computers are re-imaged automatically. What should you do?

A.    Modify the deployment verification settings for the site.
B.    For the operating system deployment task sequence deployment, set the Make available to the following option to Only media and PXE.
C.    For the operating system deployment task sequence deployment, set the Make available to the following options to Only Configuration Manager Clients.
D.    Create a new operating system deployment task sequence deployment that uses a custom collection, and then set the purpose to Required.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 170
Your network contains three Active Directory forests named contoso.com, fabrikam.com, and litwareinc.com. All of the forests are untrusted. In contoso.com, you have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. In each forest, you deploy a distribution point that will be used to perform PXE-based operating system deployments. Each distribution point has the same configuration. You discover that the operating system deployments can only be performed in contoso.com. You need to ensure that you can perform the operating system deployments in each forest. The solution must minimize security changes to the Active Directory environment. What should you do?

A.    Establish a one-way trust relationship from contoso.com to fabrikam.com and from contoso.com to litwareinc.com.
B.    Add a Network Access Account for fabrikam.com and litwareinc.com.
C.    Establish a one-way trust relationship from fabrikam.com to contoso.com and from litwareinc.com to contoso.com.
D.    Add a client push installation account for fabrikam.com and litwareinc.com.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 171
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment. You plan to refresh all of the client computers that run Windows 7 to Windows 8.1 by using Configuration Manager. You need to recommend a method to maintain the user state information after the refresh completes. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Create a task sequence that copies the C:\Users folder to the server that runs Microsoft SQL Server.
B.    Createa WIM image of all the client computers before the refresh.
C.    Create and configure a state migration point.
D.    Create a task sequence to rundism.exeon the client computers before the refresh.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 172
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. You need to create a Configuration Manager solution to retrieve only the client computers that do not have Microsoft Office 2013 installed. You create a query. What should you include in the subquery?

A.    Not in
B.    Not like
C.    <=
D.    !=

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 173
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment. You discover that the last logon user details are not being updated for all of the client computers. You need to ensure that the last logon user details are updated. Which Configuration Manager discovery method should you use?

A.    Active Directory User Discovery
B.    Network Discovery
C.    Heartbeat Discovery
D.    Active Directory System Discovery

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 174
You have a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) stand-alone primary site. You have an administrator named Admin1. You discover that Admin1 can create collections that contains servers, laptops, and desktop computers. You create a collection named Collection1. Collection1 contains only desktop computers on the network. You need to ensure that Admin1 can create only collections that contain desktop computers. Which settings should you modify?

A.    Security Scopes for Admin1
B.    Membership Rules for Collection1
C.    Security Roles for Admin1
D.    Security for Collection1

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 175
Your network contains a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) environment. The environment contains a primary site server named Server1 and a server named Server2 that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2012. Server2 contains the Configuration Manager database. Server2 fails. You install SQL Server 2012 on a new server. You name the server Server3. You need to restore the Configuration Manager database to Server3. What should you do?

A.    Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Configuration Manager Setup Wizard.
B.    From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Managements Studio, and then restore the backed up SQL Server database and log files.
C.    Register the Service Principal Name (SPN) for the SQL Server Service account of Server3. From Server1, run the Site Repair Wizard.
D.    From Server3, run Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, and then attach the backed up SQL Server database and log files.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 176
……


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NEW QUESTION 198
You are deploying an ASP.NET application to an Azure virtual machine (VM). The application throws an exception when invalid data is entered. When exceptions occur, an administrator must log on to the system to remove the bad data, and then restart the application. You need to gather information about application crashes. What should you do?

A.    View the IIS logs.
B.    View the Windows event system logs.
C.    View the Windows event application logs.
D.    Collect network and web metrics.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 199
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Azure Virtual Network named fabVNet with three subnets named Subnet-1, Subnet-2 and Subnet-3. You have a virtual machine (VM) named fabVM running in the fabProd service. You need to modify fabVM to be deployed into Subnet-3. You want to achieve this goal by using the least amount of time and while causing the least amount of disruption to the existing deployment. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate Power Shell cmdlet to the correct location in the Power Shell command. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 200
You have an application that uses SQL Server in an Azure virtual machine (VM) to store data. If the VM running the primary instance of SQL Server fails:
– The application must automatically begin using a backup copy of the SQL Server data.
– The recovery solution must guarantee that no data is lost.
If the primary datacenter fails:
– There must be a way to manually switch to a secondary data center.
– Some data loss is acceptable.
You create an active datacenter named AD1 and a passive datacenter named PD1. AD1 has two SQL Server instances. PD1 has one SQL Server instance. You need to implement the replication and failover solutions for the application. What should you do?

A.    In AD1, configure asynchronous replication and automatic failover. In PD1, configure synchronous replication and manual failover from AD1.
B.    In AD1, configure synchronous replication and automatic failover. In PD1, configure synchronous replication and manual failover from AD1.
C.    In AD1, configure synchronous replication and manual failover. In PD1, configure asynchronous replication and manual failover from AD1.
D.    In AD1, configure asynchronous replication and manual failover. In PD1, configure asynchronous replication and manual failover from AD1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 201
You manage Azure Web Apps for a company. You migrate an on-premises web app to Azure. You plan to update the Azure Web App by modifying the connection string and updating the files that have changed since previous revision. The deployment process must use Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and occur during off-peak hours as an automated batch process. You need to update the Azure Web App. What should you do?

A.    Configure a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) transfer script.
B.    Deploy the project from Microsoft Visual Studio.
C.    Run theNew-AzureRMWebAppAzure PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Run theNew-AzureRmResouceGroupDeploymentAzure PowerShell cmdlet.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 202
You manage an on-premises monitoring platform. You plan to deploy virtual machines (VMs) in Azure. You must use existing on-premises monitoring solutions for Azure VMs. You must maximize security for any communication between Azure and the on-premises environment. You need to ensure that Azure alerts are sent to the on-premises solution. What should you do?

A.    Enable App Service Authentication for the VMs.
B.    Configure a basic authorization webhook.
C.    Deploy an HDInsight cluster.
D.    Configure a token-based authorization webhook.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 203
You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You have an application that updates text files frequently. The text files will not exceed 20 gigabytes (GB) in size. Each write operation must not exceed 4 megabytes (MB). You need to allocate storage in Azure for the application. Which three storage types will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    page blob
B.    queue
C.    append blob
D.    block blob
E.    file share

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 204
……


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands adds a new user usera to FreelPA?

A.    useradd usera –directory ipa –gecos *User A”
B.    idap- useradd –H ldaps://ipa-server CN=UserA –attribs “Firstname: User: Lastname: A”
C.    ipa-admin create user –account usera -_fname User –iname A
D.    ipa user-add usera –first User –last A
E.    ipa-user- add usera –name “User A”

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which option of the openvpn command should be used to ensure that ephemeral keys are not written to the swap space?

A.    –mlock
B.    –no-swap
C.    –root-swap
D.    –keys-no-swap

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is used in a parameter file for setkey in order to create a new SPD entry?

A.    spd
B.    addspd
C.    newspd
D.    spdnew
E.    spdadd

Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following terms refer to existing scan techniques with nmap? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Xmas Scan
B.    Zero Scan
C.    FIN Scan
D.    IP Scan
E.    UDP SYN Scan

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
When OpenVPN sends a control packet to its peer, it expects an acknowledgement in 2 seconds by default. Which of the following options changes the timeout period to 5 seconds?

A.    -tls-timeout 5
B.    -tls- timeout 500
C.    -tls- timer 5
D.    -tls- timer 500

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following commands makes the contents of the eCryptfs encrypted directory – /Private available to the user?

A.    ecryptfsclient
B.    ecryptfs.mount
C.    ecryptfs-mount-private
D.    decryptfs
E.    ecryptfs-manage-di rectory

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which command revokes ACL-based write access for groups and named users on the file afile?

A.    setfacI -x group: * : rx, user:*: rx afile
B.    setfacl -x mask: : rx afile
C.    setfacl ~m mask: : rx afile
D.    setfacl ~m group: * : rx, user:*: rx afile

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How does TSIG authenticate name servers in order to perform secured zone transfers?

A.    Both servers mutually verify their X509 certificates.
B.    Both servers use a secret key that is shared between the servers.
C.    Both servers verify appropriate DANE records for the labels of NS records used to delegate the transferred zone.
D.    Both servers use DNSSEC to mutually verify that they are authoritative for the transferred zone.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are differences between AppArmor and SELinux? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    AppArmor is implemented in user space only. SELinux is a Linux Kernel Module.
B.    AppArmor is less complex and easier to configure than SELinux.
C.    AppArmor neither requires nor allows any specific configuration. SELinux must always be manually configured.
D.    SELinux stores information in extended file attributes. AppArmor does not maintain file specific information and states.
E.    The SELinux configuration is loaded at boot time and cannot be changed later on AppArmor provides user space tools to change its behavior.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands adds users using SSSD’s local service?

A.    sss_adduser
B.    sss_useradd
C.    sss_add
D.    sss_addlocaluser
E.    sss_local_adduser

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements are true regarding the certificate? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    This certificate belongs to a certification authority.
B.    This certificate may be used to sign certificates of subordinate certification authorities.
C.    This certificate may never be used to sign any other certificates.
D.    This certificate may be used to sign certificates that are not also a certification authority.
E.    This certificate will not be accepted by programs that do not understand the listed extension.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements are valid wireshark capture filters? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    port range 10000:tcp-15000:tcp
B.    port-range tcp 10000-15000
C.    tcp portrange 10000-15000
D.    portrange 10000/tcp-15000/tcp
E.    portrange 10000-15000 and tcp

Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
Which of the following openssl commands generates a certificate signing request (CSR) using the already existing private key contained in the file private/keypair.pem?

A.    openssl req -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem
B.    openssl req – new -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem
C.    openssl gencsr -key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem
D.    openssl gencsr -new- key private/keypair.pem -out req/csr.pem

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following command lines sets the administrator password for ntop to testing 123?

A.    ntop –set-admin-password=testing123
B.    ntop –set-password-testing123
C.    ntop –reset-password=testing 123
D.    ntop –set-new-password=testing123

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements is true about chroot environments?

A.    Symbolic links to data outside the chroot path are followed, making files and directories accessible
B.    Hard links to files outside the chroot path are not followed, to increase security
C.    The chroot path needs to contain all data required by the programs running in the chroot environment
D.    Programs are not able to set a chroot path by using a function call, they have to use the command chroot
E.    When using the command chroot, the started command is running in its own namespace and cannot communicate with other processes

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which option in an Apache HTTPD configuration file enables OCSP stapling? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: httpd-ssl.conf

QUESTION 17
What option of mount.cifs specifies the user that appears as the local owner of the files of a mounted CIFS share when the server does not provide ownership information? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: uld=arg

QUESTION 18
Which of the following expressions are valid AIDE rules? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    !/var/run/.*
B.    append: /var/log/*
C.    /usr=all
D.    #/bin/
E.    /etc p+i+u+g

Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Which directive is used in an OpenVPN server configuration in order to send network configuration information to the client? (Specify ONLY the option name without any values or parameters.)

Answer: push

QUESTION 20
Which of the following authentication methods was added to NFS in version 4?

A.    Kerberos authentication
B.    SSH hostkey authentication
C.    Winbind authentication
D.    SSL certificate authentication

Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following commands defines an audit rule that monitors read and write operations to the file/ etc/firewall/rules and associates the rule with the name firewall?

A.    auditctl -N firewall -r r: /etc/firewall/rules -r w: etc/firewall/rules
B.    auditctl -A -f /etc/firewall/rules -p rw -k firewall
C.    auditctl -w /etc/firewall/rules -p rw -k firewall
D.    auditctl -_read /etc/firewall/rules -_write /etc/firewall/rules –label firewall
E.    echo “n: firewall r:/etc/firewall/rules: w:/ etc/firewall/rules:” | auditctl ~

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following information, within a DNSSEC- signed zone, is signed by the key signing key?

A.    The non-DNSSEC records like A, AAAA or MX.
B.    The zone signing key of the zone.
C.    The RRSIG records of the zone.
D.    The NSEC or NSEC3 records of the zone.
E.    The DS records pointing to the zone.

Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following lines in an OpenSSL configuration adds an X 509v3 Subject Alternative Name extension for the host names example.org and www.example.org to a certificate?

A.    subjectAltName = DNS: www example.org, DNS: example.org
B.    extension = SAN: www.example.org, SAN: example.org
C.    subjectAltName: www.example.org, subjectAltName: example.org
D.    commonName = subjectAltName = www.example.org, subjectAltName = example.org
E.    subject = CN = www.example.org, CN = example.org

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which command is used to run a new shell for a user changing the SELinux context? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: newrole

QUESTION 25
Which of the following configuration options makes Apache HTTPD require a client certificate for authentication?

A.    Limit valid-x509
B.    SSLRequestClientCert always
C.    Require valid-x509
D.    SSLVerifyClient require
E.    SSLPolicy valid-client-cert

Answer: D


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QUESTION 26
Given a proper network and name resolution setup, which of the following commands establishes a trust between a FreelPA domain and an Active Directory domain?

A.    ipa trust-add –type ad addom –admin Administrator –password
B.    ipa-ad -add-trust –account ADDOM\Administrator–query-password
C.    net ad ipajoin addom -U Administrator -p
D.    trustmanager add -_domain ad: //addom –user Administrator -w
E.    ipa ad join addom -U Administrator –w

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which of the following resources of a shell and its child processes can be controlled by the Bash build-in command ulimit? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    The maximum size of written files
B.    The maximum number of open file descriptors
C.    The maximum number of newly created files
D.    The maximum number of environment variables
E.    The maximum number of user processes

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 28
Linux Extended File Attributes are organized in namespaces. Which of the following names correspond to existing attribute namespaces? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    default
B.    system
C.    owner
D.    trusted
E.    user

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which of the following stanzas is a valid client configuration for Free RADIUS?

A.    client pnvate-network-1 { ipaddr = 192 0 2.0/24 password = testing123-1 }
B.    client private-network-1 { ip = 192.0.2.0/24 password = testing123-1 }
C.    client private-network-1 { ip = 192 0 2.0/24 passwd = testing123-1 }
D.    client private-network-1 { ip = 192 0.2.0/24 secret = testing123-1 }
E.    client private-network-1 { ipaddr = 192 0 2.0/24 secret = testing123-1 }

Answer: E

QUESTION 30
Which of the following practices are important for the security of private keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Private keys should be created on the systems where they will be used and should never leave them.
B.    private keys should be uploaded to public key servers.
C.    Private keys should be included in X509 certificates.
D.    Private keys should have a sufficient length for the algorithm used for key generation.
E.    Private keys should always be stored as plain text files without any encryption.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 31
Given that this device has three different keys, which of the following commands deletes only the first key?

A.    cryptsetup luksDelKey /dev/sda 1 0
B.    cryptsetup luksDelkey /dev/sda 1 1
C.    cryptsetup luksDelKey / dev /mapper/crypt- vol 1
D.    cryptsetup luksDelKey / dev /mapper/crypt- vol 0

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What command is used to update NVTs from the OpenVAS NVT feed? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: openvas-nvt-sync

QUESTION 33
Which command included in the Linux Audit system provides searching and filtering of the audit log? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: ausearch

QUESTION 34
Which of the following types can be specified within the Linux Audit system? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    Control rules
B.    File system rules
C.    Network connection rules
D.    Console rules
E.    System call rules

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 35
Which of the following sections are allowed within the Kerberos configuration file krb5.conf? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    [plugins]
B.    [crypto]
C.    [domain]
D.    [capaths]
E.    [realms]

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 36
Which of the following parameters to openssl s_client specifies the host name to use for TLS Server Name Indication?

A.    -tlsname
B.    -servername
C.    -sniname
D.    -vhost
E.    -host

Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which of the following statements is true regarding eCryptfs?

A.    For every file in an eCryptfs directory there exists a corresponding file that contains the encrypted content.
B.    The content of all files in an eCryptfs directory is stored in an archive file similar to a tar file with an additional index to improve performance.
C.    After unmounting an eCryptfs directory, the directory hierarchy and the original file names are still visible, although, it is not possible to view the contents of the files.
D.    When a user changes his login password, the contents of his eCryptfs home directory has to be re-encrypted using his new login password.
E.    eCryptfs cannot be used to encrypt only directories that are the home directory of a regular Linux user.

Answer: E

QUESTION 38
Which of the following methods can be used to deactivate a rule in Snort? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    By placing a # in front of the rule and restarting Snort.
B.    By placing a pass rule in local.rules and restarting Snort.
C.    By deleting the rule and waiting for Snort to reload its rules files automatically.
D.    By adding a pass rule to /etc/snort/rules.deactivated and waiting for Snort to reload its rules files automatically.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 39
What happens when the command getfattr afile is run while the file afile has no extended attributes set?

A.    getfattr prints a warning and exits with a values of 0.
B.    getfattr prints a warning and exits with a value of 1.
C.    No output is produced and getfattr exits with a value of 0.
D.    No outputs is produced and getfattr exits with a value of 1.

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What effect does the configuration SSLStrictSNIVHostCheck on have on an Apache HTTPD virtual host?

A.    The clients connecting to the virtual host must provide a client certificate that was issued by the same CA that issued the server’s certificate.
B.    The virtual host is served only to clients that support SNI.
C.    All of the names of the virtual host must be within the same DNS zone.
D.    The virtual host is used as a fallback default for all clients that do not support SNI.
E.    Despite its configuration, the virtual host is served only on the common name and Subject Alternative Names of the server certificates.

Answer: B

QUESTION 41
What is the purpose of IP sets?

A.    They group together IP addresses that are assigned to the same network interfaces.
B.    They group together IP addresses and networks that can be referenced by the network routing table.
C.    They group together IP addresses that can be referenced by netfilter rules.
D.    They group together IP and MAC addresses used by the neighbors on the local network.
E.    They group together IP addresses and user names that can be referenced from /etc/hosts allow and /etc/hosts deny

Answer: C

QUESTION 42
Which of the following components are part of FreeIPA? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    DHCP Server
B.    Kerberos KDC
C.    Intrusion Detection System
D.    Public Key Infrastructure
E.    Directory Server

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 43
What is the purpose of the program snort-stat?

A.    It displays statistics from the running Snort process.
B.    It returns the status of all configured network devices.
C.    It reports whether the Snort process is still running and processing packets.
D.    It displays the status of all Snort processes.
E.    It reads syslog files containing Snort information and generates port scan statistics.

Answer: E

QUESTION 44
Which of the following access control models is established by using SELinux?

A.    Security Access Control (SAC)
B.    Group Access Control (GAC)
C.    User Access Control (UAC)
D.    Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
E.    Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Answer: E

QUESTION 45
Which of the following prefixes could be present in the output of getcifsacl? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    ACL
B.    GRANT
C.    GROUP
D.    OWNER
E.    SID

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 46
What effect does the following command have on TCP packets?
iptables- A INPUT -d 10 142 232.1 -p tcp -dport 20:21 -j ACCEPT

A.    Forward all TCP traffic not on port 20 or 21 to the IP address 10.142 232.1
B.    Drop all TCP traffic coming from 10 142 232.1 destined for port 20 or 21
C.    Accept only TCP traffic from 10.142 232.1 destined for port 20 or 21
D.    Accept all TCP traffic on port 20 and 21 for the IP address 10.142.232.1

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
How are SELinux permissions related to standard Linux permissions? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    SELinux permissions overnde standard Linux permissions.
B.    standard Linux permissions override SELinux permissions.
C.    SELinux permissions are verified before standard Linux permissions.
D.    SELinux permissions are verified after standard Linux permissions.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 48
Which of the following commands disables the automatic password expiry for the user usera?

A.    chage –maxdays none usera
B.    chage –maxdays 99 usera
C.    chage –maxdays -1 usera
D.    chage –lastday none usera
E.    chage –lastday 0 usera

Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Which of the following commands changes the source IP address to 192.0.2.11 for all IPv4 packets which go through the network interface eth0?

A.    iptables ~t nat -A POSTROUTING ~o eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11
B.    iptables ~t nat -A PREROUT1NG -\ eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11
C.    iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING H eth0 -j DNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11
D.    iptables -t mangle -A POSTROUTING -i eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11
E.    iptables -t mangle -A POSTROUTING -0 eth0 -j SNAT -to-source 192.0.2.11

Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Which command, included in BIND, generates DNSSEC keys? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: dnssec-keygen


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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following tools can NOT be used to create virtual machines, including their configuration in a libvirt-based KVM environment?

A.    virt-clone
B.    virt-install
C.    virt-img
D.    virt-manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands lists the snapshots existing in the disk image vm1.img?

A.    qemu-info snapshots vm1.img
B.    qemu-img snapshot -l vm1.img
C.    qemu-hda snapshot -l vm1.img -noboot -list snapshots
D.    qemu-snapshots -l vm1.img
E.    qemu-monitor -snapshots -hda vm1.img

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the effect of running the virsh vcpupin CLUSNODE-2 4 2 command?

A.    It sets the affinity of virtual CPU 4 of virtual machine CLUSNODE-2 to physical processor 2.
B.    It reduces the number of virtual CPUs in CLUSNODE-2 from 4 to 2.
C.    It increases the number of virtual CPUs in CLUSNODE-2 from 2 to 4.
D.    It sets the affinity for all virtual CPUs of virtual machine CLUSNODE-2 to the physical processors 2 and 4.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which CPU flag indicates the hardware virtualization capability on an AMD CPU?

A.    SVM
B.    VIRT
C.    VMX
D.    PVM
E.    HVM

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following KVM parameters is identical to the KVM parameter -hdb file.img?

A.    -drive bus=ide1,type=slave,image=file.img
B.    -drive image=file.img,if=ide,device=hdb
C.    -drive bus=hd,busid=b,src=file.img
D.    -drive file=file.img,index=1,media=disk,if=ide
E.    -drive type=loop,src=file.img,dst=disk:hdb

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which command was used in Xen 3.x as a predecessor of the xl command? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: xm

QUESTION 7
Which sub-command of xl changes the media inside a virtual CD-ROM drive of a Xen guest domain? (Specify ONLY the sub-command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: block-attach, xl cd-insert, cd-eject, xl cd-eject, cd-insert, xl block-attach, blockdetach, xl block-detach

QUESTION 8
Which of the following tasks is performed by Vagrant?

A.    It migrates virtual machines automatically between host systemsto distribute the load of all virtual machines equally to all hosts involved.
B.    It automates the installation of a virtual machine according to a configuration file describing the desired VM.
C.    It monitors the functionality of a virtual machine and restarts the VM in case of failure.
D.    It is a hypervisor optimized for the usage in embedded systems based on the ARM CPU architecture.
E.    It is a programming interface used to create reports from collected performance and resource usage data of a libvirt-based virtualization infrastructure.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following componentsare partsof XAPI? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    The XADB configuration management database.
B.    The XAPI virtual file system available at /xen.
C.    The xm command.
D.    The xe command.
E.    The xapi daemon.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A configuration file for a Xen virtual machine was created with file name slack.cfg withinXen’s configuration directory.Which of the following commands starts the virtual machine defined in this configuration file and opens the virtual machine’s console on the current command line?

A.    xl start slack
B.    xl create slack.cfg –show-console
C.    xl create slack.cfg
D.    xl start slack.cfg -c
E.    xl create slack.cfg -c

Answer: E

QUESTION 11
What does IaaS stand for?

A.    Integration as a Service
B.    Intelligence as a Service
C.    Instances as a Service
D.    Infrastructure as a Service
E.    Information as a Service

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
How can data be shared between several virtual machines running on the same Linux- based host system?

A.    By mounting other VM’s file systems from /dev/virt-disks/remote/.
B.    By using a network file system or file transfer protocol.
C.    By default, Linux-based virtualization products provide full access to the host system to all virtual machines.
D.    By setting up a ramdisk in one virtual machine and mounting it using its UUID in the other VMs.
E.    By attaching the same virtual hard disk to all virtual machines and activating EXT4 sharing extensions on it.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When used with KVM, which of the following block device image formats support snapshots?

A.    qcow
B.    dmg
C.    qed
D.    qcow2
E.    raw

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following restrictions is true when using KVM with the User Network?

A.    Virtual Machines must use a SOCKS proxy to connect to the internet.
B.    Virtual Machines can communicate with the host system and with other virtual machines using User Network.
C.    Virtual Machines can only communicate with other virtual machines but not with the host system.
D.    Virtual Machinescannotuse ICMP.
E.    Virtual Machines are restricted to only use IPv6 and not IPv4.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which command is used to perform all central management and configuration operations regarding OpenVZ containers? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

Answer: vzctl, virsh

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is true regarding the CPU of a KVM virtual machine? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Each KVM virtual machine can only have one CPU with one core.
B.    KVM virtual machines support multiple virtual CPUs in order to run SMP systems.
C.    The CPU architecture of a KVM virtual machine is independent of the host system’s architecture.
D.    For each KVM virtual machine one dedicated physical CPU core must be reserved.
E.    KVM uses the concept of virtual CPUs to map the virtual machines to physical CPUs.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements describes the concept behind paravirtualization?

A.    Guest operating systems are modified to actively cooperate with the hypervisor in order to ease virtualization costs and gain better performance.
B.    Instead of running full virtual machines, containers are used to separate distinct parts of one commonly shared operating system that appear as a virtual machine.
C.    To avoid the need for virtualization, special security measures are taken to allow different applications to coexist on one physical machine.
D.    Each operating system is trusted to use only those resources assigned to it, thereby eliminating the need of an additional virtualization layer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
In order to determine if a virtualization host offers Intel VT-x support, which CPU flag must be searched for in the file /proc/cpuinfo? (Specify the name of the CPU flag as it is mentioned in the given file only without any additional information.)

Answer: vmx, VMX

QUESTION 19
In order to use the option dom0_mem to limit the amount of memory assigned to the Xen Domain-0, where must this option be specified?

A.    In its Makefile, when Xen is built.
B.    In the configuration file /etc/xen/Domain-0.cfg, when Xen starts.
C.    In the bootloader configuration, when Xen is booted.
D.    In its .config file, when the Domain-0 kernel is built.
E.    In any of Xen’s global configuration files.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following technologies is the most important component of IaaS clouds?

A.    Database replication
B.    DNS delegation
C.    Emulation
D.    Mandatory Access Control
E.    Virtualization

Answer: E

QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements are true regarding resource management for full virtualization? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    The hypervisor may provide fine-grained limits to internal elements of the guest operating system such as the number of processes.
B.    Full virtualization cannot pose any limits to virtual machines and always assigns the host system’s resources in a first-come-first-serve manner.
C.    It is up to the virtual machine to use its assigned hardware resources and create, for example, an arbitrary amount of network sockets.
D.    The hypervisor provides each virtual machine with hardware of a defined capacity that limits the resources of the virtual machine.
E.    All processes created within the virtual machines are transparently and equally scheduled in the host system for CPU and I/O usage.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In keepalived, what keyword starts the configuration section for one of the failover servers?

A.    lvs_server
B.    virtual_server
C.    vrrp_instance
D.    vrrp_sync_group

Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which configuration setting ultimately determines which server will be the MASTER with keepalived?

A.    advert_int
B.    state
C.    type
D.    priority

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which function is not supported in a GFS2 filesystem?

A.    repair
B.    grow
C.    shrink
D.    withdraw

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
When using the user mode network stack with qemu, TCP and UDP connections work fine but ping does not work. Why is this?

A.    The Qemu user mode network stack does not implement ICMP.
B.    The problem is caused by incorrect routing.
C.    The Qemu user mode network stack blocks all ICMP traffic.
D.    The Qemu user mode network stack requires explicit permission for ping to work.

Answer: A


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QUESTION 26
Which of the following commands are needed to establish a private network between two (or more) KVM virtual machines that is not visible to other KVM instances on the same KVM host? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    ifconfig
B.    brctl
C.    tunctl
D.    ipconfig
E.    ebtables

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements are true for full virtualization? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Full virtualization does not require changes to the guest operating systems.
B.    Full virtualization has no performance impact compared to a non-virtualized bare-metal installation on the same machine.
C.    Full virtualization has a severe performance impact and should not be used in production environments.
D.    Full virtualization may be supported by special CPU extensions that provide better performance.
E.    Full virtualization always requires additional software components and cannot be done using Linux only.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
Which command in the KVM monitor ejects the first IDE CDROM drive? (Specify the KVM monitor command INCLUDING ALL REQUIRED PARAMETERS.)

Answer: eject ide1-cd0, eject -f ide1-cd0

QUESTION 29
How can data in a computing instance in an IaaS cloud be permanently saved and accessed even after the recreation of the computing instance? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    By saving the data to the memory of the computing instance using tmpfs.
B.    By saving the data anywhere in the computing instance’s file system.
C.    By saving the data to /cloud/persistent/ which is provided in all common IaaS clouds.
D.    By saving the data to object stores provided by a separate service in the cloud.
E.    By saving the data on persistent block devices that must be explicitly connected to the computing instance.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 30
Which of the following are valid KVM parameters? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    -drive file=iscsi://user%password@fileserver/iqn.2001-04.com.example/1
B.    -drive file=rsync://user%password@fileserver:/tmp/file.iso,media=cdrom,readonly
C.    -drive file=ssh://user@host/tmp/file.img
D.    -drive file=imap://user:password@mailserver:/INBOX/Wufnc6MjYp@mailgate
E.    -drive file=http://user:password@fileserver/pub/linux.iso,media=cdrom,readonly

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 31
Which command within virsh lists the virtual machines that are available on the current host?

A.    view
B.    show
C.    list-vm
D.    list
E.    list-all

Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which options to the xl command will deactivate a running Xen virtual machine? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    destroy
B.    remove
C.    shutdown
D.    stop
E.    halt

Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which of the following tools is used to interact with XenStore?

A.    xenstore-ls
B.    xendo
C.    xs
D.    xl store
E.    xstore

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
What is oVirt?

A.    An extension to the Linux Kernel used to provide container virtualization similar to LXC and OpenVZ.
B.    A library that provides access to several different virtualization technologies in a common manner.
C.    A comprehensive management infrastructure for Linux-based virtualization.
D.    An approach used to eliminate the need for virtualization called Zero-Virt.
E.    A Linux-based hypervisor similar to KVM and Xen.

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following tasksare partsof a hypervisor’s responsibility? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Create filesystems during the installation of new VM guest operating systems.
B.    Provide host-wide unique PIDs to the processes running inside the VMs in order to ease interprocess communication between virtual machines.
C.    Map the resources of virtual machines to the resources of the host system.
D.    Ensure isolation and eliminate any interference between virtual machines.
E.    Manage authentication to network services running inside a virtual machine.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 36
What is the name of the global configuration file for the xl tool stack? (Specify the file name only without any path.)

Answer: /etc/xen/xl.conf, xl.conf

QUESTION 37
Which of the following directives is used in the configuration file of a Xen guest domain in order to define network interfaces?

A.    vif
B.    eth
C.    vnet
D.    vbr
E.    net

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements is true regarding networking with libvirt?

A.    Libvirt’s network functionality is limited to connecting virtual machines to a physical network interface of the host system.
B.    Libvirt networks appear, by default, as standard Linux bridges in the host system.
C.    Libvirt assigns the same MAC address to all virtual machines and isolates their network interfaces at the link layer.
D.    Libvirt requires a dedicated network interface that may not be used by the host system.
E.    Libvirt supports exactly one virtual network and connects all virtual machines to it.

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which daemon applies the configuration and commands of libvirt to the virtualization components of the host system?

A.    vmd
B.    virtuald
C.    libvirtmgr
D.    libvirt-worker
E.    libvirtd

Answer: E

QUESTION 40
Which file format is used by libvirt to store configuration data?

A.    INI-style text files
B.    Text files containing key/value pairs
C.    Java-like .properties files
D.    XML files
E.    SQLite databases

Answer: D

QUESTION 41
Which of the following resources are directly (i.e. without specialized machine images) available to users of an OpenStack cloud? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A.    Database servers to store relational data.
B.    Virtual machines for computing tasks.
C.    Application servers for immediate deployment with Mono applications.
D.    Object storage that is accessed through an API.
E.    Block storage devices for persistent data storage.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 42
Which of the following statements is true regarding XenStore?

A.    It is a web interface used to provide self-service domain provisioning to users with sufficient privileges.
B.    It saves the persistent configuration of all defined Xen domains and restores them when the host system is started.
C.    It manages disk file images on behalf of all virtual machines and provides them as virtual devices to guest domains.
D.    It stores run time information regarding Xen and its domains using hierarchical namespaces shared between domains.
E.    It is a software repository located within the host system used to provide software packages to the guest domains.

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which of the following types of guest systems does Xen support? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    Paravirtualized guests (PV)
B.    Foreign architecture guests (FA)
C.    Fully virtualized guests (HVM)
D.    Container virtualized guests (CVM)
E.    Emulated guests (EMU)

Answer: AC

QUESTION 44
What is XAPI?

A.    An extension of libvirt which adds live migration of virtual servers between arbitrary hypervisors.
B.    A ReSTful API which is used by xl to communicate with the Xen hypervisor.
C.    The communication interface between a paravirtualized Linux Kernel and the Xen hypervisor.
D.    A high level tool chain which provides advanced management tools and interfaces for Xen.
E.    The internal messaging system within the Xen hypervisor.

Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which value must be set in the option builder in the configuration file of a Xen guest domain in order to create a fully virtualized machine instead of a paravirtualized one? (Specify ONLY the value without any option name, quotes or operators.)

Answer: ‘hvm’, &quot;hvm&quot;, hvm

QUESTION 46
Which of the following commands provides a detailed list of all image files contained in the libvirt storage pool vol1?

A.    virsh list –volumes –pool vol1 –details
B.    virsh vol-details vol1
C.    virsh –show-pool vol1 –details
D.    virsh vol-list vol1 –details
E.    virsh volumes –source vol1 –details

Answer: D

QUESTION 47
When migrating a physical machine to a full virtualized machine, which of the following properties should be expected to change from the perspective of the guest operating system? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A.    The user accounts within the guest operating system.
B.    The properties of the CPU and other hardware devices.
C.    The MAC address of the network interfaces.
D.    The version of the guest operating system.
E.    The software and applications installed on the guest system.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
Which subcommand of virsh opens the XML configuration of a virtual network in an editor in order to make changes to that configuration? (Specify ONLY the subcommand without any parameters.)

Answer: virsh net-edit, net-edit

QUESTION 49
Which of the following statements are true regarding VirtualBox?

A.    It supports only Linux as a guest operating system.
B.    It is available for Linux only.
C.    It provides both a graphical user interface and command line tools to administer virtual machines.
D.    It requires dedicated shared storage as it cannot store virtual machine disk images locally on block devices of the virtualization host.
E.    It is a special kernel booted before the first regular operating system.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
In the command:
vzctl ____ 105 /usr/bin/apt-get install wget
Which subcommand of vzctl is missing in order to install wget in the OpenVZ container 105?

Answer: exec, exec2


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NEW QUESTION 1
You have successfully comprised a server having an IP address of 10.10.0.5. You would like to enumerate all machines in the same network quickly. What is the best nmap command you will use?

A.    nmap -T4 -F 10.10.0.0/24
B.    nmap -T4 -r 10.10.1.0/24
C.    nmap -T4 -O 10.10.0.0/24
D.    nmap -T4 -q 10.10.0.0/24

Answer: A
Explanation:
command = nmap -T4 -F
description = This scan is faster than a normal scan because it uses the aggressive timing template and scans fewer ports.
https://svn.nmap.org/nmap/zenmap/share/zenmap/config/scan_profile.usp

NEW QUESTION 2
You have compromised a server on a network and successfully opened a shell. You aimed to identify all operating systems running on the network. However, as you attempt to fingerprint all machines in the network using the nmap syntax below, it is not going through.
invictus@victim_server:~$ nmap -T4 -O 10.10.0.0/24
TCP/IP fingerprinting (for OS scan) xxxxxxx xxxxxx xxxxxxxxx.
QUITTING!
What seems to be wrong?

A.    OS Scan requires root privileges.
B.    The nmap syntax is wrong.
C.    This is a common behavior for a corrupted nmap application.
D.    The outgoing TCP/IP fingerprinting is blocked by the host firewall.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You requested a scan type which requires root privileges.
http://askubuntu.com/questions/433062/using-nmap-for-information-regarding-web-host

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.    Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model
B.    Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model
C.    Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 & Layer 3 of the OSI model
D.    Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model

Answer: A
Explanation:
The OSI layer 2 is where packet sniffers collect their data.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ethernet_frame

NEW QUESTION 4
You are logged in as a local admin on a Windows 7 system and you need to launch the Computer Management Console from command line. Which command would you use?

A.    c:\compmgmt.msc
B.    c:\services.msc
C.    c:\ncpa.cp
D.    c:\gpedit

Answer: A
Explanation:
To start the Computer Management Console from command line just type compmgmt.msc / computer:computername in your run box or at the command line and it should automatically open the Computer Management console.
http://www.waynezim.com/tag/compmgmtmsc/

NEW QUESTION 5
What is the best description of SQL Injection?

A.    It is an attack used to gain unauthorized access to a database.
B.    It is an attack used to modify code in an application.
C.    It is a Man-in-the-Middle attack between your SQL Server and Web App Server.
D.    It is a Denial of Service Attack.

Answer: A
Explanation:
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the BEST way to defend against network sniffing?

A.    Using encryption protocols to secure network communications
B.    Register all machines MAC Address in a Centralized Database
C.    Restrict Physical Access to Server Rooms hosting Critical Servers
D.    Use Static IP Address

Answer: A
Explanation:
A way to protect your network traffic from being sniffed is to use encryption such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). Encryption doesn’t prevent packet sniffers from seeing source and destination information, but it does encrypt the data packet’s payload so that all the sniffer sees is encrypted gibberish.
http://netsecurity.about.com/od/informationresources/a/What-Is-A-Packet-Sniffer.htm

NEW QUESTION 7
You have successfully gained access to a linux server and would like to ensure that the succeeding outgoing traffic from this server will not be caught by a Network Based Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS). What is the best way to evade the NIDS?

A.    Encryption
B.    Protocol Isolation
C.    Alternate Data Streams
D.    Out of band signalling

Answer: A
Explanation:
When the NIDS encounters encrypted traffic, the only analysis it can perform is packet level analysis, since the application layer contents are inaccessible. Given that exploits against today’s networks are primarily targeted against network services (application layer entities), packet level analysis ends up doing very little to protect our core business assets.
http://www.techrepublic.com/article/avoid-these-five-common-ids-implementation-errors/

NEW QUESTION 8
You just set up a security system in your network. In what kind of system would you find the following string of characters used as a rule within its configuration?
alert tcp any any -> 192.168.100.0/24 21 (msg: “FTP on the network!”;)

A.    An Intrusion Detection System
B.    A firewall IPTable
C.    A Router IPTable
D.    FTP Server rule

Answer: A
Explanation:
Snort is an open source network intrusion detection system (NIDS) for networks.
Snort rule example:
This example is a rule with a generator id of 1000001.
alert tcp any any -> any 80 (content:”BOB”; gid:1000001; sid:1; rev:1;)
http://manual-snort-org.s3-website-us-east-1.amazonaws.com/node31.html

NEW QUESTION 9
What is the benefit of performing an unannounced Penetration Testing?

A.    The tester will have an actual security posture visibility of the target network.
B.    Network security would be in a “best state” posture.
C.    It is best to catch critical infrastructure unpatched.
D.    The tester could not provide an honest analysis.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Real life attacks will always come without expectation and they will often arrive in ways that are highly creative and very hard to plan for at all. This is, after all, exactly how hackers continue to succeed against network security systems, despite the billions invested in the data protection industry.
A possible solution to this danger is to conduct intermittent “unannounced” penentration tests whose scheduling and occurrence is only known to the hired attackers and upper management staff instead of every security employee, as would be the case with “announced” penetration tests that everyone has planned for in advance. The former may be better at detecting realistic weaknesses.
http://www.sitepronews.com/2013/03/20/the-pros-and-cons-of-penetration-testing/

NEW QUESTION 10
You have successfully compromised a machine on the network and found a server that is alive on the same network. You tried to ping it but you didn’t get any response back. What is happening?

A.    ICMP could be disabled on the target server.
B.    The ARP is disabled on the target server.
C.    TCP/IP doesn’t support ICMP.
D.    You need to run the ping command with root privileges.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The ping utility is implemented using the ICMP “Echo request” and “Echo reply” messages.
Note: The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is one of the main protocols of the internet protocol suite. It is used by network devices, like routers, to send error messages indicating, for example, that a requested service is not available or that a host or router could not be reached.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Control_Message_Protocol

NEW QUESTION 11
Under the “Post-attack Phase and Activities”, it is the responsibility of the tester to restore the systems to a pre-test state. Which of the following activities should not be included in this phase? (see exhibit)
1. Removing all files uploaded on the system

2. Cleaning all registry entries

3. Mapping of network state

4. Removing all tools and maintaining backdoor for reporting

A.    3
B.    4
C.    3 and 4
D.    All should be included

Answer: A
Explanation:
The post-attack phase revolves around returning any modified system(s) to the pretest state. Examples of such activities:
– Removal of any files, tools, exploits, or other test-created objects uploaded to the system during testing
– Removal or reversal of any changes to the registry made during system testing
Computer and Information Security Handbook, John R. Vacca (2012), page 531

NEW QUESTION 12
It is a regulation that has a set of guidelines, which should be adhered to by anyone who handles any electronic medical data. These guidelines stipulate that all medical practices must ensure that all necessary measures are in place while saving, accessing, and sharing any electronic medical data to keep patient data secure. Which of the following regulations best matches the description?

A.    HIPAA
B.    ISO/IEC 27002
C.    COBIT
D.    FISMA

Answer: A
Explanation:
The HIPAA Privacy Rule regulates the use and disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI) held by “covered entities” (generally, health care clearinghouses, employer sponsored health plans, health insurers, and medical service providers that engage in certain transactions). By regulation, the Department of Health and Human Services extended the HIPAA privacy rule to independent contractors of covered entities who fit within the definition of “business associates”.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Health_Insurance_Portability_and_Accountability_Act#Privacy_Rule

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a component of a risk assessment?

A.    Administrative safeguards
B.    Physical security
C.    DMZ
D.    Logical interface

Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk assessment include:
– The total process of identifying, measuring, and minimizing uncertain events affecting AIS resources. It includes risk analysis, cost benefit analysis, safeguard selection, security test and evaluation, safeguard implementation, and systems review.
– The total process of identifying, controlling, and eliminating or minimizing uncertain events that may affect system resources. lt includes risk analysis, cost benefit analysis, selection, implementation and test, security evaluation of safeguards, and overall security review.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IT_risk_management#Risk_assessment

NEW QUESTION 14
A medium-sized healthcare IT business decides to implement a risk management strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?

A.    Delegate
B.    Avoid
C.    Mitigate
D.    Accept

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are five main ways to manage risk: acceptance, avoidance, transference, mitigation or exploitation.
http://www.dbpmanagement.com/15/5-ways-to-manage-risk

NEW QUESTION 15
Your company was hired by a small healthcare provider to perform a technical assessment on the network. What is the best approach for discovering vulnerabilities on a Windows-based computer?

A.    Use a scan tool like Nessus
B.    Use the built-in Windows Update tool
C.    Check MITRE.org for the latest list of CVE findings
D.    Create a disk image of a clean Windows installation

Answer: A
Explanation:
Nessus is an open-source network vulnerability scanner that uses the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures architecture for easy cross-linking between compliant security tools. The Nessus server is currently available for Unix, Linux and FreeBSD. The client is available for Unix-or Windows-based operating systems. Note: Significant capabilities of Nessus include:
– Compatibility with computers and servers of all sizes.
– Detection of security holes in local or remote hosts.
– Detection of missing security updates and patches.
– Simulated attacks to pinpoint vulnerabilities.
– Execution of security tests in a contained environment.
– Scheduled security audits.

NEW QUESTION 16
Nation-state threat actors often discover vulnerabilities and hold on to them until they want to launch a sophisticated attack. The Stuxnet attack was an unprecedented style of attack because it used four types of vulnerability. What is this style of attack called?

A.    zero-day
B.    zero-hour
C.    zero-sum
D.    no-day

Answer: A
Explanation:
Stuxnet is a malicious computer worm believed to be a jointly built American-Israeli cyber weapon. Exploiting four zero-day flaws, Stuxnet functions by targeting machines using the Microsoft Windows operating system and networks, then seeking out Siemens Step7 software.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stuxnet

NEW QUESTION 17
An attacker changes the profile information of a particular user (victim) on the target website. The attacker uses this string to update the victim’s profile to a text file and then submit the data to the attacker’s database.
<iframe src=”http://www.vulnweb.com/updateif.php” style=”display:none”></iframe>
What is this type of attack (that can use either HTTP GET or HTTP POST) called?

A.    Cross-Site Request Forgery
B.    Cross-Site Scripting
C.    SQL Injection
D.    Browser Hacking

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cross-site request forgery, also known as one-click attack or session riding and abbreviated as CSRF (sometimes pronounced sea-surf) or XSRF, is a type of malicious exploit of a website where unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user that the website trusts. Different HTTP request methods, such as GET and POST, have different level of susceptibility to CSRF attacks and require different levels of protection due to their different handling by web browsers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cross-site_request_forgery

NEW QUESTION 18
It is a vulnerability in GNU’s bash shell, discovered in September of 2014, that gives attackers access to run remote commands on a vulnerable system. The malicious software can take control of an infected machine, launch denial-of-service attacks to disrupt websites, and scan for other vulnerable devices (including routers). Which of the following vulnerabilities is being described?

A.    Shellshock
B.    Rootshock
C.    Rootshell
D.    Shellbash

Answer: A
Explanation:
Shellshock, also known as Bashdoor, is a family of security bugs in the widely used Unix Bash shell, the first of which was disclosed on 24 September 2014.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shellshock_(software_bug)

NEW QUESTION 19
When you return to your desk after a lunch break, you notice a strange email in your inbox. The sender is someone you did business with recently, but the subject line has strange characters in it. What should you do?

A.    Forward the message to your company’s security response team and permanently delete the message from your computer
B.    Reply to the sender and ask them for more information about the message contents
C.    Delete the email and pretend nothing happened
D.    Forward the message to your supervisor and ask for her opinion on how to handle the situation

Answer: A
Explanation:
By setting up an email address for your users to forward any suspicious email to, the emails can be automatically scanned and replied to, with security incidents created to follow up on any emails with attached malware or links to known bad websites.
https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/helsinki-security-management/page/product/threat-intelligence/task/t_ConfigureScanEmailInboundAction.html

NEW QUESTION 20
The network administrator contacts you and tells you that she noticed the temperature on the internal wireless router increases by more than 20% during weekend hours when the office was closed. She asks you to investigate the issue because she is busy dealing with a big conference and she doesn’t have time to perform the task. What tool can you use to view the network traffic being sent and received by the wireless router?

A.    Wireshark
B.    Nessus
C.    Netcat
D.    Netstat

Answer: A
Explanation:
Wireshark is a Free and open source packet analyzer. It is used for network troubleshooting, analysis, software and communications protocol development, and education.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Nessus is an open-source network vulnerability scanner that uses the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures architecture for easy cross-linking between compliant security tools.
C: Netcat (often abbreviated to nc) is a computer networking utility for reading from and writing to network connections using TCP or UDP.
D: Netstat provides network statistics.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wireshark

NEW QUESTION 21
A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server. Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A.    Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B.    Require all employees to change their passwords immediately
C.    Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D.    Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

Answer: A
Explanation:
A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMZ_(computing)

NEW QUESTION 22
Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening ports on the targeted system. If a scanned port is open, what happens?

A.    The port will ignore the packets.
B.    The port will send an RST.
C.    The port will send an ACK.
D.    The port will send a SYN.

Answer: A
Explanation:
An attacker uses a TCP XMAS scan to determine if ports are closed on the target machine. This scan type is accomplished by sending TCP segments with the all flags sent in the packet header, generating packets that are illegal based on RFC 793. The RFC 793 expected behavior is that any TCP segment with an out- of-state Flag sent to an open port is discarded, whereas segments with out-of-state flags sent to closed ports should be handled with a RST in response. This behavior should allow an attacker to scan for closed ports by sending certain types of rule-breaking packets (out of sync or disallowed by the TCB) and detect closed ports via RST packets.
https://capec.mitre.org/data/definitions/303.html

NEW QUESTION 23
During a recent security assessment, you discover the organization has one Domain Name Server (DNS) in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) and a second DNS server on the internal network. What is this type of DNS configuration commonly called?

A.    Split DNS
B.    DNSSEC
C.    DynDNS
D.    DNS Scheme

Answer: A
Explanation:
In a split DNS infrastructure, you create two zones for the same domain, one to be used by the internal network, the other used by the external network. Split DNS directs internal hosts to an internal domain name server for name resolution and external hosts are directed to an external domain name server for name resolution.
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/S/split_DNS.html

NEW QUESTION 24
This tool is an 802.11 WEP and WPA-PSK keys cracking program that can recover keys once enough data packets have been captured. It implements the standard FMS attack along with some optimizations like KoreK attacks, as well as the PTW attack, thus making the attack much faster compared to other WEP cracking tools. Which of the following tools is being described?

A.    Aircrack-ng
B.    Airguard
C.    WLAN-crack
D.    wificracker

Answer: A
Explanation:
Aircrack-ng is a complete suite of tools to assess WiFi network security. The default cracking method of Aircrack-ng is PTW, but Aircrack-ng can also use the FMS/KoreK method, which incorporates various statistical attacks to discover the WEP key and uses these in combination with brute forcing.
http://www.aircrack-ng.org/doku.php?id=aircrack-ng

NEW QUESTION 25
The Heartbleed bug was discovered in 2014 and is widely referred to under MITRE’s Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) as CVE-2014-0160. This bug affects the OpenSSL implementation of the transport layer security (TLS) protocols defined in RFC6520. What type of key does this bug leave exposed to the Internet making exploitation of any compromised system very easy?

A.    Private
B.    Public
C.    Shared
D.    Root

Answer: A
Explanation:
The data obtained by a Heartbleed attack may include unencrypted exchanges between TLS parties likely to be confidential, including any form post data in users’ requests. Moreover, the confidential data exposed could include authentication secrets such as session cookies and passwords, which might allow attackers to impersonate a user of the service. An attack may also reveal private keys of compromised parties.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heartbleed


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NEW QUESTION 26
In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ Maxx and data theft through a technique known as wardriving. Which Algorithm is this referring to?

A.    Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B.    Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C.    Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
D.    Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Answer: A
Explanation:
WEP is the currently most used protocol for securing 802.11 networks, also called wireless lans or wlans. In 2007, a new attack on WEP, the PTW attack, was discovered, which allows an attacker to recover the secret key in less than 60 seconds in some cases. Note: Wardriving is the act of searching for Wi-Fi wireless networks by a person in a moving vehicle, using a portable computer, smartphone or personal digital assistant (PDA).
https://events.ccc.de/camp/2007/Fahrplan/events/1943.en.html

NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following is considered an acceptable option when managing a risk?

A.    Reject the risk.
B.    Deny the risk.
C.    Mitigate the risk.
D.    Initiate the risk.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 28
Which security control role does encryption meet?

A.    Preventative
B.    Detective
C.    Offensive
D.    Defensive

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 29
Which type of access control is used on a router or firewall to limit network activity?

A.    Mandatory
B.    Discretionary
C.    Rule-based
D.    Role-based

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 30
At a Windows Server command prompt, which command could be used to list the running services?

A.    Sc query type= running
B.    Sc query \\servername
C.    Sc query
D.    Sc config

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 31
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti-virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following resources does NMAP need to be used as a basic vulnerability scanner covering several vectors like SMB, HTTP and FTP?

A.    Metasploit scripting engine
B.    Nessus scripting engine
C.    NMAP scripting engine
D.    SAINT scripting engine

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following scanning tools is specifically designed to find potential exploits in Microsoft Windows products?

A.    Microsoft Security Baseline Analyzer
B.    Retina
C.    Core Impact
D.    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 34
A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 35
When creating a security program, which approach would be used if senior management is supporting and enforcing the security policy?

A.    A bottom-up approach
B.    A top-down approach
C.    A senior creation approach
D.    An IT assurance approach

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following processes evaluates the adherence of an organization to its stated security policy?

A.    Vulnerability assessment
B.    Penetration testing
C.    Risk assessment
D.    Security auditing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 37
A security consultant is trying to bid on a large contract that involves penetration testing and reporting. The company accepting bids wants proof of work so the consultant prints out several audits that have been performed. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result?

A.    The consultant will ask for money on the bid because of great work.
B.    The consultant may expose vulnerabilities of other companies.
C.    The company accepting bids will want the same type of format of testing.
D.    The company accepting bids will hire the consultant because of the great work performed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 38
Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

A.    Facial recognition scan
B.    Retinal scan
C.    Iris scan
D.    Signature kinetics scan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 39
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?

A.    The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B.    Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C.    A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D.    A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 40
During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?

A.    The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B.    The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C.    The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D.    The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 41
Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?

A.    Omnidirectional
B.    Parabolic
C.    Uni-directional
D.    Bi-directional

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 42
What is the name of the international standard that establishes a baseline level of confidence in the security functionality of IT products by providing a set of requirements for evaluation?

A.    Blue Book
B.    ISO 26029
C.    Common Criteria
D.    The Wassenaar Agreement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 43
One way to defeat a multi-level security solution is to leak data via ____.

A.    a bypass regulator.
B.    steganography.
C.    a covert channel.
D.    asymmetric routing.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following conditions must be given to allow a tester to exploit a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) vulnerable web application?

A.    The victim user must open the malicious link with an Internet Explorer prior to version 8.
B.    The session cookies generated by the application do not have the HttpOnly flag set.
C.    The victim user must open the malicious link with a Firefox prior to version 3.
D.    The web application should not use random tokens.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 45
What is the main difference between a “Normal” SQL Injection and a “Blind” SQL Injection vulnerability?

A.    The request to the web server is not visible to the administrator of the vulnerable application.
B.    The attack is called “Blind” because, although the application properly filters user input, it is still vulnerable to code injection.
C.    The successful attack does not show an error message to the administrator of the affected application.
D.    The vulnerable application does not display errors with information about the injection results to the attacker.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 46
During a penetration test, a tester finds a target that is running MS SQL 2000 with default credentials. The tester assumes that the service is running with Local System account. How can this weakness be exploited to access the system?

A.    Using the Metasploit psexec module setting the SA / Admin credential
B.    Invoking the stored procedure xp_shell to spawn a Windows command shell
C.    Invoking the stored procedure cmd_shell to spawn a Windows command shell
D.    Invoking the stored procedure xp_cmdshell to spawn a Windows command shell

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 47
The precaution of prohibiting employees from bringing personal computing devices into a facility is what type of security control?

A.    Physical
B.    Procedural
C.    Technical
D.    Compliance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 48
A pentester gains access to a Windows application server and needs to determine the settings of the built- in Windows firewall. Which command would be used?

A.    Netsh firewall show config
B.    WMIC firewall show config
C.    Net firewall show config
D.    Ipconfig firewall show config

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 49
In the software security development life cycle process, threat modeling occurs in which phase?

A.    Design
B.    Requirements
C.    Verification
D.    Implementation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 50
A network administrator received an administrative alert at 3:00 a.m. from the intrusion detection system. The alert was generated because a large number of packets were coming into the network over ports 20 and 21. During analysis, there were no signs of attack on the FTP servers. How should the administrator classify this situation?

A.    True negatives
B.    False negatives
C.    True positives
D.    False positives

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 51
……


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NEW QUESTION 341
Which OSPF LSA type describes the router IDs of ASBR routers located in remote areas?

A.    Type 4
B.    Type 2
C.    Type 3
D.    Type 1

Answer: A
Explanation:
OSPF LSA types:
LSA Type 1: Router LSA
LSA Type 2: Network LSA
LSA Type 3: Summary LSA
LSA Type 4: Summary ASBR LSA
LSA Type 5: Autonomous system external LSA
LSA Type 6: Multicast OSPF LSA
LSA Type 7: Not-so-stubby area LSA
LSA Type 8: External attribute LSA for BGP
References:
https://networklessons.com/ospf/ospf-lsa-types-explained/

NEW QUESTION 342
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
[edit]
user@host# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0
{
interface ge-3/0/0.0
{
interface-type p2p;
}
}

A.    Type 2 LSAs are not created for this link.
B.    Type 2 LSAs are created for this link.
C.    Designated router election does not occur on this link.
D.    Designated router election occurs on this link.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Type 2 – Network LSA – the designated router (DR) on a broadcast segment (e.g. Ethernet) lists which routers are joined together by the segment. Type 2 LSAs are flooded across their own area only. The link- state ID of the type 2 LSA is the IP interface address of the DR.
C: Designated router (DR) and BDR election is done via the Hello protocol. Hello packets are exchanged via IP multicast packets (Appendix B) on each segment. Multicast packets are not sent on p2p links.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link-state_advertisement
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/7039-1.html#t21

NEW QUESTION 343
What are three well-known mandatory BGP attributes? (Choose three.)

A.    origin
B.    MED
C.    AS path
D.    next hop
E.    local preference

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
ORIGIN is a well known mandatory attribute that indicates the origin of the prefix, or rather, the way in which the prefix was injected into BGP. The AS_PATH is a well-known mandatory attribute. The BGP NEXT_HOP is a well-known mandatory attribute.
References:
http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=331613&seqNum=5

NEW QUESTION 344
Your customer requests that you provide a transparent Layer 2 service between two of their remote locations. This service must allow the customer to pass tagged traffic from multiple VLANs. You decide to use Q-in-Q tunneling on the two provider edge MX Series routers that connect to the customer’s CE devices. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    As traffic enters the Q-in-Q tunnel on the core-facing interface on the ingress PE device, a push operation is performed.
B.    As traffic passes through intermediary P routers in the Q-in-Q tunnel, a push operation is performed.
C.    As traffic passes through intermediary P routers in the Q-in-Q tunnel, a swap operation is performed.
D.    As traffic enters the Q-in-Q tunnel on the core-facing interface on the ingress PE device, a swap operation is performed.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Q-in-Q tunneling adds a service VLAN tag before the customer’s 802.1Q VLAN tags. The Juniper Networks Junos operating system implementation of Q-in-Q tunneling supports the IEEE 802.1ad standard. In Q-in-Q tunneling, as a packet travels from a customer VLAN (C-VLAN) to a service provider’s or data center VLAN (S-VLAN), another 802.1Q tag for the appropriate S-VLAN is added before the C-VLAN tag. The C-VLAN tag remains and is transmitted through the network. As the packet leaves the S-VLAN in the downstream direction, the S-VLAN 802.1Q tag is removed. With the push option, a packet retains its tag and an additional VLAN tag is added. With the swap option, the incoming tag is replaced with an S-VLAN tag. (This is VLAN translation.)
References:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos12.3/topics/concept/qinq-tunneling-qfx-series.html

NEW QUESTION 345
In an RSVP-based MPLS network, which ERO type specifies the exact order of routers through which an LSP must travel, without consulting the IGP?

A.    loose hop
B.    static hop
C.    next hop
D.    strict hop

Answer: D
Explanation:
When a strict hop is configured, it identifies an exact path through which the LSP must be routed. Strict-hop EROs (Explicit Route Objects) specify the exact order of the routers through which the RSVP messages are sent.
Incorrect Answers:
A: When a loose hop is configured, it identifies one or more transit LSRs through which the LSP must be routed. The network IGP determines the exact route from the inbound router to the first loose hop, or from one loose hop to the next. The loose hop specifies only that a particular LSR be included in the LSP.
References:
https://forums.juniper.net/t5/Routing/loose-and-strict-option/td-p/164626

NEW QUESTION 346
You are adding IPv6 to an existing IPv4 network running OSPF. Your plan is to use OSPFv3 to route both IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes. Which configuration will enable OSPFv3 to advertise prefixes for both IPv4 and IPv6?

A.    user@host# show protocols ospf3
realm ipv4-unicast {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}
}
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}
B.    user@host# show protocols ospf3
export ipv4;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}
C.    user@host# show protocols ospf
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}
user@host# show protocols ospf3
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}
D.    user@host# show protocols ospf3
rib-group inet.0;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
}

Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, OSPFv3 supports unicast IPv6 routes, but you can configure OSPFv3 to support multiple address families. To support an address family other than unicast IPv6, you configure a realm that allows OSPFv3 to advertise IPv4 unicast, IPv4 multicast, or IPv6 multicast routes. Example of a configuration which support both Ipv4 and Ipv6 prefixes:
user@host# show protocols ospf3
realm ipv4-unicast {
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface fe-0/1/0.0;
}
}
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface fe-0/1/0.0;
}
References:
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/topic-map/ospfv3-multiple-address-families.html

NEW QUESTION 347
How many bytes does IP-IP tunneling add to an IP packet?

A.    20
B.    24
C.    16
D.    28

Answer: A
Explanation:
Tunneling increases overhead, because it needs an extra set of IP headers. Typically this is 20 bytes per packet, so if the normal packet size (MTU) on a network is 1500 bytes, a packet that is sent through a tunnel can only be 1480 bytes big.
References:
http://cs.uccs.edu/~scold/iptunnel.htm

NEW QUESTION 348
An IS-IS router on a broadcast medium has detected its LSDB is missing an LS PDU. Which action will the router take?

A.    The router will send a CSNP to the router that sent it a PSNP with missing PDUs.
B.    The router will send a link-state request packet to its closest Level 1/Level2 router.
C.    The router will send a PSNP to the router that sent it a CSNP with missing PDUs.
D.    The router will send a link-state request packet to its DIS router.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A Partial SNP (PSNP) is similar to CSNP except that it describes only some LSPs rather than the entire database. On a P2P network, PSNP is used to acknowledge received LSPs. On a LAN network, PSNP is used to request missing or latest LSPs.
Incorrect Answers:
A: IS-IS Sequence Number PDU (SNP). SNPs are used to maintain IS-IS LSDB by describing some or all of the LSPs in the database. The DIS periodically multicast Complete SNP (CSNP) to describe all the LSPs in the Pseudonode database.
References:
https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/is-is/is-is-packets

NEW QUESTION 349
An IS-IS TLV includes which two attributes? (Choose two.)

A.    topology
B.    vector
C.    length
D.    value

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Within data communication protocols, optional information may be encoded as a type-length-value or TLV element inside a protocol. TLV is also known as tag-length-value. The type and length are fixed in size (typically 1-4 bytes), and the value field is of variable size. These fields are used as follows:
Type: A binary code, often simply alphanumeric, which indicates the kind of field that this part of the message represents;
Length: The size of the value field (typically in bytes);
Value: Variable-sized series of bytes which contains data for this part of the message.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Type-length-value

NEW QUESTION 350
Which two statements are true regarding the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
[edit interfaces ge-1/0/0]
user@host# show
vlan-tagging;
native-vlan-id 55;
unit 0
{
family bridge
{
interface-mode trunk;
vlan-id-list [ 55 56 ];
}
}

A.    The ge-1/0/0 interface will transmit any outgoing frames associated with VLAN 55 as untagged frames.
B.    The ge-1/0/0 interface will associate any untagged frames that are received with VLAN 56.
C.    The ge-1/0/0 interface will associate any untagged frames that are received with VLAN 55.
D.    The ge-1/0/0 interface will transmit any outgoing frames associated with VLAN 56 as untagged frames.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
* You can configure the router to receive and forward single-tag frames, dual-tag frames, or a mixture of single-tag and dual-tag frames. To configure the router to receive and forward single-tag frames with 802.1Q VLAN tags, include the vlan- tagging statement at the [edit interfaces interface-name] hierarchy level:
[edit interfaces interface-name]
vlan-tagging;
* You can configure mixed tagging support for untagged packets on a port. Untagged packets are accepted on the same mixed VLAN-tagged port. To accept untagged packets, include the native-vlan-id statement and the flexible-vlan-tagging statement at the [edit interfaces interface-name] hierarchy level:
[edit interfaces ge-fpc/pic/port]
flexible-vlan-tagging;
native-vlan-id number;
References:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/usage-guidelines/interfaces-enabling-vlan-tagging.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos12.1×44/topics/concept/security-interface-vlan-tagging-configuring.html

NEW QUESTION 351
Which two LSA types would an ABR generate and send into a totally stubby area? (Choose two.)

A.    Type 2 LSA
B.    Type 4 LSA
C.    Type 5 LSA
D.    Type 3 LSA

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A stub area that only allows routes internal to the area and restricts Type 3 LSAs from entering the stub area is often called a totally stubby area. Totally stubby areas can only contain type 1 and 2 LSAs, and a single type 3 LSA.
References:
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/ospf-stub-areas-overview.html

NEW QUESTION 352
Which statement about Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is correct?

A.    If a device configured for RSTP receives STP BPDUs, it sends STP BPDUs.
B.    If a device configured for RSTP receives STP BPDUs, it forwards them as STP BPDUs.
C.    If a device configured for RSTP receives STP BPDUs, it continues to send RSTP BPDUs.
D.    If a device configured for RSTP receives STP BPDUs, it sends RSTP and STP BPDUs.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Enhancements enable RSTP to achieve sub-second forwarding and network convergence. RSTP is backward-compatible with legacy STP. If legacy STP BPDU is detected on a link, then an RSTP-capable bridge will revert to legacy STP on that given port.
References:
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/concept/mx-series-rstp-port-states-roles.html

NEW QUESTION 353
Which statement is true about VSTP?

A.    Adding VLANs to VSTP consumes more CPU resources.
B.    It supports 4093 spanning-tree topologies.
C.    It is compatible with PVST+, but not with PVST.
D.    Different VLANs must use different spanning-tree topologies.

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you use VLANs, we recommend that you enable MSTP unless your network requires the device compatibility provided by VSTP. Switches configured to run VSTP automatically assign each VLAN to one spanning-tree instance that runs RSTP. While this approach is useful to optimize network usage in small networks with a limited number of VLANs, a VSTP configuration in a network with several hundred VLANs can overload switch CPUs.
References:
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/spanning-trees-ex-series-vstp-understanding.html

NEW QUESTION 354
……


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NEW QUESTION 121
Given:
public class TestLoop {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int array[] = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4};
int key = 3;
for (int pos = 0; pos < array.length; ++pos) {
if (array[pos] == key) {
break;
}
}
System.out.print(“Found ” + key + “at ” + pos);
}
}
What is the result?

A.    Found 3 at 2
B.    Found 3 at 3
C.    Compilation fails
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime

Answer: C
Explanation:
The following line does not compile:
System.out.print(“Found ” + key + “at ” + pos);
The variable pos is undefined at this line, as its scope is only valid in the for loop. Any variables created inside of a loop are LOCAL TO THE LOOP.

NEW QUESTION 122
Given:
import java.util.*;
public class Ref {
public static void main(String[] args) {
StringBuilder s1 = new StringBuilder(“Hello Java!”);
String s2 = s1.toString();
List<String> lst = new ArrayList<String>();
lst.add(s2);
System.out.println(s1.getClass());
System.out.println(s2.getClass());
System.out.println(lst.getClass());
}
}
What is the result?

A.    class java.lang.String
class java.lang.String
class java.util.ArrayList
B.    class java.lang.Object
class java.lang. Object
class java.util.Collection
C.    class java.lang.StringBuilder
class java.lang.String
class java.util.ArrayList
D.    class java.lang.StringBuilder
class java.lang.String
class java.util.List

Answer: C
Explanation:
class java.lang.StringBuilder
class java.lang.String
class java.util.ArrayList

NEW QUESTION 123
Given:
public class Case {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String product = “Pen”;
product.toLowerCase();
product.contact(“ Box”.toLowerCase());
System.out.print(product.substring(4,6));
}
}
What is the result?

A.    box
B.    nbo
C.    bo
D.    nb
E.    An exception is thrown at runtime

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 124
Given:
1. public class Whizlabs {
2.    public static void main(String[] args) {
3.    int sum = 0;
4.
5.    for(int x = 0; x <= 10; x++)
6.    sum += x;
7.    System.out.print(“Sum for 0 to ” + x);
8.    System.out.println(“ = ” + sum);
9.    }
10. }
Which is true?

A.    Sum for 0 to 0 = 55
B.    Sum for 0 to 10 = 55
C.    Compilation fails due to error on line 6
D.    Compilation fails due to error on line 7
E.    An Exception is thrown at the runtime

Answer: D
Explanation:
Loop variables scope limited to that enclosing loop. So in this case, the scope of the loop variable x declared at line 5, limited to that for loop. Trying to access that variable at line 7, which is out of scope of the variable x, causes a compile time error. So compilation fails due to error at line 7. Hence option D is correct. Options A and B are incorrect, since code fails to compile.
Reference:
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/variables.html

NEW QUESTION 125
Given the code fragment:
System.out.println(28 + 5 <= 4+ 29);
System.out.println((28 + 5) <= (4 + 29));
What is the result?

A.    28false29
true
B.    285 < 429
true
C.    true
true
D.    compilation fails

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 126
Given:
public class Equal {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String str1 = “Java”;
String[] str2 = {“J”,”a”,”v”,”a”};
String str3 = “”;
for (String str : str2) {
str3 = str3+str;
}
boolean b1 = (str1 == str3);
boolean b2 = (str1.equals(str3));
System.out.print(b1+”, “+b2);
}
What is the result?

A.    true, false
B.    false, true
C.    true, true
D.    false, false

Answer: B
Explanation:
== strict equality.
equals compare state, not identity.

NEW QUESTION 127
Given:
public class Test {
static void dispResult(int[] num) {
try {
System.out.println(num[1] / (num[1] – num[2]));
} catch(ArithmeticException e) {
System.err.println(“first exception”);
}
System.out.println(“Done”);
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
int [] arr = (100, 100);
dispResult(arr);
} catch(IllegalArgumentException e) {
System.err.println(“second exception”);
} catch(Exception e) {
System.err.println(“third exception”);
}
}
}
What is the result?

A.    0
Done
B.    First Exception
Done
C.    Second Exception
D.    Done
Third Exception
E.    Third Exception

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 128
Given:
public class Marklist {
int num;
public static void graceMarks(Marklist obj4) {
obj4.num += 10;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
MarkList obj1 = new MarkList();
MarkList obj2 = obj1;
MarkList obj1 = null;
obj2.num = 60;
graceMarks(obj2);
}
}
How many objects are created in the memory runtime?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: B
Explanation:
obj1 and obj3.
when you do e2 = e1 you’re copying object references – you’re not making a copy of the object – and so the variables e1 and e2 will both point to the same object.

NEW QUESTION 129
Given:
public class X implements Z {
public String toString() {
return “X”;
}
Public static void main(String[] args) {
Y myY = new Y();
X myX = myY;
Z myZ = myX;
System.out.print(myX);
System.out.print((Y)myX);
System.out.print(myZ);
}
}
class Y extends X {
public String toString() {
return “Y”;
}
}
What is the result?

A.    X XX
B.    X Y X
C.    Y Y X
D.    Y YY

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 130
Given:
class Patient {
String name;
public Patient(String name) {
this.name = name;
}
}

And the code fragment:

8. public class Test {
9.    public static void main(String[] args) {
10.        List ps = new ArrayList();
11.        Patient p2 = new Patient(“Mike”);
12.        ps.add(p2);
13.
14.        //insert code here
15.
16.        if(f >= 0) {
17.            System.out.print(“Mike Found”);
18.        }
19.    }
20. }
Which code fragment, when inserted at line 14, enables the code to print Mike Found?

A.    int f = ps.indexOf {new patient (“Mike”)};
B.    int f = ps.indexOf (patient(“Mike”));
C.    patient p = new Patient (“Mike”);
int f = pas.indexOf(P);
D.    int f = ps.indexOf(p2);

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 131
Given:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
String[] arr =new String[4];
arr[1] = “Unix”;
arr[2] = “Linux”;
arr[3] = “Solarios”;
for (String var : arr) {
System.out.print(var + ” “);
}
} catch(Exception e) {
System.out.print (e.getClass());
}
}
}
What is the result?

A.    Unix Linux Solaris
B.    Null Unix Linux Solaris
C.    Class java.lang.Exception
D.    Class java.lang.NullPointerException

Answer: B
Explanation:
null Unix Linux Solarios
The first element, arr[0], has not been defined.

NEW QUESTION 132
Given:
public class Series {
private boolean flag;
public void displaySeries() {
int num = 2;
while(flag) {
if(num%7 == 0)
flag = false;
System.out.print(num);
Num += 2;
}
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
new Series().displaySeries();
}
}
What is the result?

A.    2 4 6 8 10 12
B.    2 4 6 8 10 12 14
C.    Compilation fails
D.    The program prints multiple of 2 infinite times
E.    The program prints nothing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 133
Which of the following can fill in the blank in this code to make it compile?
interface CanFly {
String type = “A”;
Void fly();
____ String getType() {
Return type;
}
}

A.    abstract
B.    public
C.    default
D.    It will not compile with any as interfaces cannot have non abstract methods
E.    It will compile without filling the blank

Answer: C
Explanation:
From Java SE 8, we can use static and/or default methods in interfaces, but they should be non abstract methods. SO in this case using default in blank is completely legal. Hence option C is correct. Option A is incorrect as given method is not abstract, so can’t use abstract there. Options B and E are incorrect as we can’t have non abstract method interface if they are not default or static.
https://docs.oraclexom/javase/tutorial/java/Iandl/defaultmethods.html

NEW QUESTION 134
Consider following method:
default void print() {
}
Which statement is true?

A.    This method is invalid.
B.    This method can be used only in an interface.
C.    This method can return anything.
D.    This method can be used only in an interface or an abstract class.
E.    None of above.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Given method is declared as default method so we can use it only inside an interface. Hence option B is correct and option D is incorrect. Option A is incorrect as it is valid method. Option C is incorrect as return type is void, which means we can’t return anything.

NEW QUESTION 135
Given:
public class MyFor3 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int[] xx = null;
for(int ii : xx) {
System.out.println(ii);
}
}
}
What is the result?

A.    Null
B.    Compilation fails
C.    An exception is thrown at runtime
D.    0

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 136
Given:
1. public class TestLoop {
2.    public static void main(String[] args) {
3.        float myarray[] = {10.20f, 20.30f, 30.40f, 50.60f};
4.        int index = 0;
5.        boolean isFound = false;
6.        float key = 30.40f;
7.        //insert code here
8.        System.out.println(isFound);
9.    }
10. }
Which code fragment, when inserted at line 7, enables the code print true?

Option A.
while(key == myarray[index++1]) {
isFound == ture;
}
Option B.
while(index <= 4) {
if(key == myarray[index]) {
index++;
isFound = true;
break;
}
}
Option C.
while(index++ < 5) {
if(key == myarray[index]) {
isFound = true;
}
}
Option D.
while(index < 5) {
if(key == myarray[index]) {
isFound = true;
break;
}
index++;
}
A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 137
Given:
class Base {
public static void main(String[] args) {
System.out.println(“Base ” + args[2]);
}
}
public class Sub extends Base{
public static void main(String[] args) {
System.out.println(“Overriden ” + args[1]);
}
}
And the commands:
javac Sub.java
java Sub 10 20 30
What is the result?

A.    Base 30
B.    Overridden 20
C.    Overridden 20
Base 30
D.    Base 30
Overridden 20

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 138
Given:
class SpecialException extends Exception {
public SpecialException(String message) {
super(message);
System.out.println(message);
}
}
public class ExceptionTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
try {
doSomething();
}
catch(SpecialException e) {
System.out.println(e);
}
}
static viod doSomething() throws SpecialException {
int[] ages = new int[4];
ages[4] = 17;
doSomethingElse();
}
static void doSomethingElse() throws SpecialException {
throw new SpecialException(“Thrown at end of doSomething() method”);
}
}
What will be the output?

Option A.
SpecialException: Thrown at end of doSomething() method
Option B.
Error in thread “main” java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsError
Option C.
Exception in thread “main” java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException:4
at ExceptionTest.doSomething(ExceptionTest.java:13)
at ExceptionTest.main(ExceptionTest.java:4)
Option D.
SpecialException:Thrown at end of doSomething() method
at ExceptionTest.doSomethingElse(ExceptionTest.java:16)
at ExceptionTest.doSomething(ExceptionTest.java:13)
at ExceptionTest.main(ExceptionTest.java:4)

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 139
Given the code fragments:
interface Contract { }
class Super implements Contract { }
class Sub extends Super { }
public class Ref {
public static void main(String[] args) {
List objs = new ArrayList();
Contract c1 = new Super();
Contract c2 = new Sub();    //line n1
Super s1 = new Sub();
objs.add(c1);
objs.add(c2);
objs.add(s1);    //line n2
for(Object itm:objs) {
System.out.println(itm.getClass().getName());
}
}
}
What is the result?

A.    Super
Sub
Sub
B.    Contract
Contract
Super
C.    Compilation fails at line n1
D.    Compilation fails at line n2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 140
Given:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Test ts = new Test();
System.out.print(isAvailable + “ ”);
isAvailable = ts.doStuff();
System.out.println(isAvailable);
}
public static boolean doStuff() {
return !isAvailable;
}
Static boolean isAvailable = false;
}
What is the result?

A.    true true
B.    true false
C.    false true
D.    false false
E.    Compilation fails

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 141
Given:
public class Msg {
public static String doMsg(char x) {
return “Good Day!”;
}
public static String doMsg(int y) {
return “Good Luck!”;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
char x = 8;
int z = ‘8’;
System.out.println(doMsg(x));
System.out.print(doMsg(z));
}
}
What is the result?

A.    Good Day!
Good Luck!
B.    Good Day!
Good Day!
C.    Good Luck!
Good Day!
D.    Good Luck!
Good Luck!
E.    Compilation fails

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 142
……


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NEW QUESTION 76
You are a SharePoint Administrator for Contoso, Ltd. While doing weekly maintenance you discover that a web application at http://sharepoint.contoso.com has an orphan site. The orphan site is located in the WSS_Content database. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

A.    Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
$wa = Get-SPWebApplication http://sharepoint.contoso.com $wa.Sites.SyncRoot
B.    In Central Administration, select the http://sharepoint.contoso.com web application
Select the database that contains the orphaned site
SelectRemove database and click OK
Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet: Dismount-SPContentDB
C.    Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
$ContentDb = “WSS_Content”$db = Get- SPDatabase | where {$_.name ­eq $ContentDb}
Remove-SPContentDatabase$dbMount-SPContentDatabase­WebApplicaion http://sharepoint.contoso.com Name$ContentDb
D.    Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
$wa = Get-SPWebApplication http://sharepoint.contoso.com $wa.Sites[0].Dispose()

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 77
You are preparing to migrate content from your SharePoint Server 2016 farm to a new location. All content is hosted within a single web application across 150 site collections. You have the following requirements:
– Users must be able to view existing content during the migration, but must not make changes.
– You must minimize the amount of time that the migration takes.
– You must return all access rights to their previous state once migration is complete.
You need to configure the SharePoint site collections. What should you configure?

A.    an information management policy
B.    privacy options
C.    Read only access for content
D.    alternate access mappings
E.    a user policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 78
You are the SharePoint administrator for a company. You plan to deploy the SharePoint sites that will be accessible from the company portal. You create the following sites:
Portal site – Executive
Portal site – Technology
Portal site – Engineering
Portal site – Finance
Portal site – Manufacturing
Portal site – Programs
Portal site – Sales and Marketing
A user named User1 will manage the sites. You must prevent all users except for User1 from creating sites and subsites. User1 must be able to delegate management of List permissions to other users. You designate a user in each division as a lead for that division’s site. You need to allow the designated lead in a division to manage their division’s site while minimizing administrative effort. What should you do?

A.    For each site, addthe designated divisional user account to the Team owners group for that divisions’ site.
B.    Add all divisional user accounts to the portal site’s Team Owners group.
C.    Create a new SharePoint group on the Portal site namedSP Division Managers.
Grant theDesign permission to the group and add all designated divisional lead user accounts into the group.
D.    Add the designated divisional user account for each divisional site and grant each user the Design permission.
E.    Add all the designated divisional useraccount to the portal site and grant each user the Design permission.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 79
You manage a SharePoint 2016 farm. You need to import user profiles and photos from Active Directory to the SharePoint 2016 farm. Which tool or service should you use?

A.    User Profile service application
B.    Active Directory Import
C.    Microsoft Identity Manager
D.    Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj219646.aspx

NEW QUESTION 80
You have an existing SharePoint 2016 on-premises environment. You use document libraries as file archives. Users report that they cannot upload documents larger than 3 gigabytes (GB). You need to ensure that users can upload any type of file up to 4 GB in size. What should you do?

A.    On each front-end server in the farm, locate the following registry key:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\WebClientParameters
Set the value of the FileSizeLimitInBytes key to 4294967295. Then, restart the Web Client service.
B.    In SharePoint Central Administration, change the value of the Maximum Upload Size property for the web application.
C.    Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
$WebApp.MaximumFileSizePerExtension.Add (“MaxFileSize”, 4096000)
D.    Add the following markup to the web.config file for the web application:
<httpRuntime executionTimeout =”999999″maxRequestLength= “4096000” requestValidationMode =”2.0″ />

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 81
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are the SharePoint administrator for a company. You must provide an on-premises SharePoint solution that helps monitor and analyze your business in order to make informed business decisions that align with the objectives and strategies for the company. The solution must include the following features:
– Dashboards
– Scorecards
– Key Performance Indicators (KPI)
You configure Delve. Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You need PerformancePoint Services which is aSharePoint BI tool.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee424392(v=office.16).aspx

NEW QUESTION 82
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You manage an on-premises SharePoint Server 2016 farm and SharePoint Online. You plan to deploy a SharePoint Search solution. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Present a unified set of search results to users.
– Reduce the number of Search Servers in the farm.
– Customize the search schema for content that is stored on-premises.
You implement bi-directional hybrid topologies. Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 83
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You manage an on-premises SharePoint Server 2016 farm and SharePoint Online. You plan to deploy a SharePoint Search solution. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Present a unified set of search results to users.
– Reduce the number of Search Servers in the farm.
– Customize the search schema for content that is stored on-premises.
You customize search schema for content stored on on-premises at the site collection level. Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 84
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are the SharePoint administrator for a company. The SharePoint environment is causing excessive information to be recorded in the diagnostic logs. You need to configure the SharePoint farm to only write events to the Windows event log that are equal to or more severe than the Error level. You run the following Windows PowerShell command:
Set-SPLogLevel -EventSeverity Error
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 85
……


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NEW QUESTION 297
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two.)

A.    1
B.    4095
C.    4096
D.    0
E.    1001

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
– VLAN 0 and 4095 are reserved for system use only. You cannot see or use these VLANs.
– VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs. Default VLANs are created automatically and cannot be configured or deleted by users.
– VLAN 2 to 1001 are normal VLANs. You can create, use and delete them.
– VLAN 1002 to 1005 are normal VLANs too but Cisco reserved for FDDI an Token Ring.

NEW QUESTION 298
……

NEW QUESTION 299
Which name describes an IPV6 host-enable tunneling technique that uses IPV4 UDP does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and can pass through existing IPV4 NAT gateways?

A.    dual stack XX
B.    dynamic
C.    Tered
D.    Manual 6 to 4

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 300
Which sequence begins a unique local IPv6 address in binary notation?

A.    00000000
B.    1111110
C.    1111100
D.    1111111

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 301
Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?

A.    One tunnel endpoint must be configured with IPv4 only
B.    It establishes a point-to-point tunnel
C.    Both tunnel endpoints must be configured with IPv4 only
D.    Both tunnel endpoints must support IPv4 and IPv6

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 302
What is true about ipv6 unique local addresses:

A.    Global id
B.    Public routable
C.    Summarization
D.    Unique prefix

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 303
……

NEW QUESTION 304
How many primary ipv4 addresses can be assigned on router interface?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    4
D.    Unlimited

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 305
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?

A.    ipdhcp conflict
B.    ipdhcp-server pool DHCP
C.    ipdhcp pool DHCP
D.    ipdhcp-client pool DHCP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 306
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10 and are configured as DHCP clients. Your helpdesk received calls today from users who failed to access the network from their Windows 10 computer. You open the DHCP console as shown in the exhibit:

You need to ensure that all of the Windows 10 computers can receive a DHCP lease.
Solution: You activate the scope.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183581(v=ws.10).aspx

NEW QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configuration:

You have the following subnets defined on Server1:

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security on Server1, you create an inbound rule.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd421709(v=ws.10).aspx

NEW QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the DNS Server role installed. Automatic scavenging of state records is enabled and the scavenging period is set to 10 days. All client computers dynamically register their names in the contoso.com DNS zone on Server1. You discover that the names of multiple client computers that were removed from the network several weeks ago can still be resolved. You need to configure Server1 to automatically remove the records of the client computers that have been offline for more than 10 days.
Solution: You run the dnscmd.exe command and specify the /AgeAllRecords parameter for the zone.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772069(v=ws.11).aspx

NEW QUESTION 4
Hotspot Question
You network contains an Active Directory named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2. The domain has two users named User1 and User2 and a group named Group1. User1 is the only member of Group1. Server1 has one IPAM access policy. You edit the access policy as shown in the Policy exhibit:

The DHCP scopes are configured as shown in the Scopes Exhibit:

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn268500(v=ws.11).aspx

NEW QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has three network cards. Each network card is configured to use a static IP address. Each network card connects to a different network segment. Server1 has an IPv4 scope named Scope1. You need to ensure that Server1 only uses one network card when leasing IP addresses in Scope1. What should you do?

A.    From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B.    From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C.    From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D.    From IPv4, create a new filter.
E.    From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F.    From IPv4, run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G.    From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H.    From Scope1, create a reservation.

Answer: C
Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770650(v=ws.11).aspx

NEW QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10 and are configured as DHCP clients. Your helpdesk received calls today from users who failed to access the network from their Windows 10 computer. You open the DHCP console as shown in the exhibit:

You need to ensure that all of the Windows 10 computers can receive a DHCP lease.
Solution: You start the DHCP Server service.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183581(v=ws.10).aspx

NEW QUESTION 7
Your company has a main office in London and a branch office in Seattle. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the London office, you have a Distributed File System (DFS) server named FS1 that contains a folder named Folder1. In the Seattle office, you have a DFS server named FS2. All servers run Windows Server 2016. You configure replication of Folder1 to FS2. Users in both offices frequently add files in Folder1. You monitor DFS Replication, and you discover excessive replication over the WAN link during business hours. You need to reduce the amount of bandwidth used for replication during business hours. The solution must ensure that the users can continue to save content to Folder1. What should you do?

A.    Modify the quota settings on Folder1 on FS2.
B.    Modify the properties of the replication group.
C.    Configure the copy of Folder1 on FS2 as read-only.
D.    Modify the replicated folder properties of Folder1 on FS1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Which access control method is used by the Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES) server for administrators?

A.    Single Administrator simple password login
B.    Challenge-Response shared-key method only
C.    System Manager AES Management Menu
D.    Role-Based Access Control

Answer: D
Explanation:
Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Access to AE Services Management Console Web pages can be restricted by user authorization level. The operations that users are allowed to perform such as read, edit and delete can also be restricted.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101014052

NEW QUESTION 2
What is the process for Web browsing to the AES Management Console, and logging in with the default account and default password?

A.    https://<AES Management IP Addr>:8443, then enter login=craft password=crftpw
B.    https://<AES Management IP Addr> then enter login=admin password=admin01
C.    http://<AES Management IP Addr> then enter login=admin password=admin
D.    https://<AES Management IP Addr> then enter login=cust password-custpw

Answer: D
Explanation:
Log in to the AE Server as the default administrator (cust). Make sure that the URL begins with “https://” and the host name or IP address of the AE Services Server is correct.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100171737

NEW QUESTION 3
In Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) for TSAPI, which type of CTI-link needs to be configured?

A.    ASAI-IP
B.    TSAPI-IP
C.    ADJ-IP
D.    DMCC-IP

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Avaya AES server forwards CTI requests, responses, and events between Invision CTI Server and Communication Manager. The Avaya AES server communicates with Communication Manager over an AES link. Within the AES link, CTI links may be configured to provide CTI services to CTI applications such as Invision CTI.
Step 1: Enter the display system-parameters customer-options command. On Page 3, verify that Computer Telephony Adjunct Links is set to y.
Step 2: Enter the add cti-link m command, where m is a number between 1 and 64, inclusive.
Enter a valid Extension under the provisioned dial plan in Avaya Communication Manager, set the Type field to ADJ-IP, and assign a descriptive Name to the CTI link.
Etc.
https://www.devconnectprogram.com/fileMedia/download/edd26666-ae98-4f15-9a2a-a156d0807160

NEW QUESTION 4
Which four kinds of services does the TSAPI standard provide for third-party call control over Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM)? (Choose four.)

A.    receiving notifications of events
B.    controlling specific calls or stations
C.    invoking CM features
D.    performing a remote reboot to the CM server
E.    completing the routing of incoming calls
F.    adding new feature buttons to agent sets

Answer: ABCE
Explanation:
A: The services in the Event Report group provide a client application with the reports of events that cause a change in the state of a call, a connection, or a device.
B: The services in the call control group enable a telephony client application to control a call or connection on Communication Manager. Typical uses of these services are: placing calls from a device controlling a connection for a single call.
C: The services in the query group allow a client to query device features and static attributes of a Communication Manager device.
E: The services in the routing group allow Communication Manager to request and receive routing instructions for a call from a client application.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100141354

NEW QUESTION 5
Which configuration must be completed before configuring a TSAPI link on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES)?

A.    A CTI link must be configured on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) first.
B.    A Switch Connection must be configured on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES) first.
C.    A signaling-group must be configured on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) first.
D.    A CTI-user must be configured on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES) first.

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you are administering the AE Server for TSAPI, JTAPI, DMCC with Call Control, Telephony Web Service, or an AE Services integration (Microsoft or IBM Sametime), you must administer a CTI link from Communication Manager to AE Services. Follow these steps from a Communication Manager SAT to administer a CTI link type ADJ-IP:
Procedure:
1. Type add cti-link <link number>, for example add cti-link 5.
2. Complete the CTI LINK form as follows:
E. In the Extension field, type <station extension>, for example 70001.
F. In the Type field, type ADJ-IP.
G. In the Name field, type <name of AE Server>, for example aeserver1.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100171737

NEW QUESTION 6
What are three ways of accessing Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES) to perform administration? (Choose three.)

A.    with an Open X.11 terminal window
B.    with web access
C.    with remote access using Rlogin
D.    with local access using a system console
E.    with remote access using SSH

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
B: You can use a Web browser to access the Application Enablement Services Management Console (AE Services Management Console).
DE: Administrators can access the AE Services Linux shell (command prompt) either locally using a system console or remotely using a secure shell (ssh) client. This access method applies primarily to AE Services Technicians (craft users) who perform specific tasks, such as viewing trace logs, installing patches, and so forth.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100171737

NEW QUESTION 7
To which other component does the Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES) Switch Connections connect?

A.    Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS) using H.323
B.    Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM) using SIP
C.    Avaya Aura® Communications Manager (CM) using H.323
D.    Avaya Aura® Communications Manager (CM) using SIP

Answer: C
Explanation:
Adding a switch connection. The procedure include the following steps:
1. From theAE Services Management Console main menu, select Communication Manager Interface > Switch Connections.
2. On the Switch Connections page, in the Add Connection field, type a switch connection name (for example Switch1).
For the Secure H323 Connection check box, do one of the following:
* For Communication Manager6.3.6 or later and TLS for the H.323 Signaling Channel (normally associated with FIPS Mode), select the Secure H323 Connection check box.
* For any previous release of Communication Managerwithout TLS for the H.323 Signaling Channel, uncheck the Secure H323 Connection check box.
Etc.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100171737

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the process for establishing a command line session to the AES Management IP Address, and logging in with the default account and default password?

A.    Use PuTTY to Rlogin to > AES Management IP Addr > using port 21, then enter login=admin password=admin.
B.    Use PuTTY to SSH to > AES Management IP Addr > using port 22, then enter login=craft password=crftpw.
C.    Use PuTTY to SSH to > AES Management IP Addr > using port 22, then enter login=cust password=custpw.
D.    Use PuTTY to SSH to > AES Management IP Addr > using port 222, then enter login=admin password=admin01.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use port 22, not port 21 or port 222. Log in as craft and use the default password.
https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/AES/4.0/02_300356_4.pdf

NEW QUESTION 9
In which two locations is the Switch Password configured?

A.    In `ip-services’ form on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) and in `TSAPI link’ on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES)
B.    In `ip-services’ form on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) and in `Switch Connection’ on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES)
C.    In `cti-link’ form on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) and in `Switch Connection’ on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES)
D.    In `cti-link’ form on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) and in `TSAPI link’ on Avaya Aura® Application Enablement Services (AES)

Answer: B
Explanation:
Enabling AE Services refers to administering the transport link between Communication Manager and AE Services.
Procedure:
1. Type change ip-services. Communication Manager displays the IP SERVICES form.
2. Complete Page 1 of the IP SERVICES form.
3. Complete Page 3 of the IP SERVICES form as follows:
E. In the AE Services Server field, type the name of the AE Services server.
F. In the Password field, create a password.
This is the password that the AE Services administrator must set on the AE Server (Communication Manager Interface > Switch Connections > Edit Connection > Switch Password). The passwords must exactly match on both Communication Manager and the AE Services server.
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100171737

NEW QUESTION 10
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Callers hear a fast busy when they dial into Avaya Aura® Messaging (AAM) to retrieve their voicemail messages. After troubleshooting you discover that someone has left trunks in busy-out state on AAM. How would you restore the trunks to in-service status?

A.    Using AAM web GUI access Administration > Messaging > Diagnostics > Network Connection, and then click on the Release All Trunks button.
B.    SSH to AAM, and execute the release trunks all command.
C.    SSH to AAM, and execute the release trunk command.
D.    Using AAM web GUI access Administration > Messaging > Telephony Diagnostics > Release, type `all’ in the Equipment Number field, and then click on the Release button.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
A customer reports that their Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) enabled SIP telephones (AST) can only see the effect of their telephone being Call Forwarded after they log off and log on again. Also stopping the call forward feature does not show until their endpoint is logged off and logged on again. What is the cause of the problem?

A.    A coverage path has not been setup.
B.    The Call Forwarding feature has not been assigned to a button.
C.    Data Privacy is enabled in the station’s Class of Service.
D.    An entry is missing in the private-numbering System Administration Terminal (SAT) form.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
A customer called in stating they cannot place WebRTC calls. You discover that when the WebRTC snap-in sends an Invite to Avaya Aura® Media Server (AAMS), Avaya Breeze TM is not sending the correct information in the Request URI to match a regular expression in Session Manager. Where do you configure the Media Server URI (ce-msml@avaya.com) that Avaya Breeze TM will send to AAMS via Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM)?

A.    Use Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI to access the Engagement Development Platform>; Configuration > Attributes.
B.    Use SSH to Avaya Breeze TM and edit the “/etc/config.properties” file.
C.    Use Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI to access the Inventory>; Manage Elements, and then edit the Avaya Breeze TM element.
D.    Use Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI to access the Engagement Development Platform>; Configuration > Avaya Aura® Media Server.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Which statement about Network Routing Policies in Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM) is true?

A.    A dial pattern and routing policy are necessary in SM to call from an H323 device to a Basic/Native SIP device (without an Avaya Aura® Communication Manager profile).
B.    A dial pattern and routing policy are necessary in SM to call from a Basic/Native SIP device (without a CM profile) to an H323 device on Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM).
C.    A dial pattern and routing policy are necessary in SM to call from an H323 device to an AST device on the same Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM).
D.    A dial pattern and routing policy are necessary in SM to call from an AST device to an H323 device on the same Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
In which two Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) System Administration Terminal (SAT) forms does the SIP domain need to be configured? (Choose two.)

A.    trunk-group
B.    signaling-group
C.    ip-network-map
D.    ip-network-region

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a TLS link down message between Avaya Aura® Session Manager (SM) and Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE). Tracing on SM and SBCE reveals a Fatal Error Unknown CA message being sent by SBCE when it receives the Server Identity certificate from SM. To solve this problem, which two actions need to be completed? (Choose two.)

A.    Install the Certificate Authority certificate that signed SBCE identity certificate into SM.
B.    Export the SBCE identity certificate, and import it into SM.
C.    Install the Certificate Authority certificate that signed SM identity certificate into SBCE.
D.    Add Certificate Authority certificate into the TLS profile Peer Verification List.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 7
When a customer calls voicemail to retrieve their messages they hear “Hello, to access your mailbox…” instead of the users named followed by “please enter your password…”. After troubleshooting you discover that the Caller ID is not being sent correctly, therefore Avaya Aura® Messaging (AAM) is not able to identify the correct mailbox associated with the station number calling into AAM. How can this problem be fixed?

A.    Change clid-numbering 0 SAT form to send the correct CLID.
B.    Using AAM web GUI access Administration > Messaging > Telephone Integration, write a caller ID modification rule to correct the incoming CLID format.
C.    In Session Manager, configure a DigitConversionAdapter with `fromto=true’ to update the `Form’ header as well as the P-asserted-identity, and link it to the AAM SIP Entity.
D.    Having identified the trunk group from Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) to AMM is public, change public-unknown-numbering 0 SAT form, to send the correct CLID.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
Right after an Avaya Breeze TM installation, the customer called in stating WebRTC calls are not working. Where can the administrator go to verify that the Avaya Breeze TM server was configured to Accept Service?

A.    Avaya Breeze TM web GUI, and navigate to Avaya Breeze TM Dashboard.
B.    Avaya Breeze TM command line, and run the status service command.
C.    Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI, and navigate to Breeze Dashboard.
D.    Avaya Aura® System Manager command line, run the status service command.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
A customer called in stating that none of their users can IM or see each other’s Presence. After troubleshooting you discover that default gateway of the Avaya Breeze TM SM100 has the wrong IP Address in the configuration. Where would you go to correct this problem?

A.    Use SSH to Avaya Breeze TM, and run SMnetSetup.
B.    Use SSH to Avaya Breeze TM, and use the route command to correct the routing table.
C.    Use Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI to update the SIP Entity screen.
D.    Use Avaya Aura® System Manager web GUI to access the Engagement Development Platform; >Server Administration, and edit the Server Instance.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
A customer called Avaya Support after their telecom administrator was unable to add 50 new telephones for new hires. Avaya support determined that the number of telephones exceeded the capacity the system could support. Which pre-implementation step was omitted?

A.    Access support.avaya.com to verify customer systems compatibility.
B.    Test all third-party equipment and software.
C.    Verify version installed is compatible with existing versions.
D.    Provide accurate licensing specification.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
What are the two types of certificates the Avaya server uses?

A.    Root or a Certificate Authority (CA) certificate and Server Identity certificates
B.    Root or a Certificate Authority (CA) and SIP default certificates
C.    Site Root certificates and Security certificates
D.    Backup server and default certificates

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two SIP requests are used to allow an AST endpoint to use features provided by an Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM)? (Chose two.)

A.    INVITE
B.    OPTIONS
C.    REGISTER
D.    SUBSCRIBE
E.    NOTIFY

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 4
A customer reports that when they make a call from an H.323 endpoint at the Main office to an H.323 telephone at the Branch office across the WAN, the call fails due to codec mismatch. If misconfigured, which three Avaya Aura® Communication Manager (CM) System Administration Terminal (SAT) forms can be causing this problem? (Choose three.)

A.    ip-network-region
B.    ip-codec-set
C.    ip-services
D.    ip-network-map
E.    node-names ip

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 5
Ignoring Presence, to be fully functional, how many event package does an AST endpoint subscribe to?

A.    1
B.    5
C.    12
D.    64

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
Which three statements about media-processing resources (DSPs) are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SIP-SIP two-party calls will always use SIP Direct Media.
B.    Two-party calls originated by H.323 stations, trunks, or media gateways, and terminated by SIP stations or trunks, cannot shuffle.
C.    H.323-H.323 two-party calls will always shuffle.
D.    Two-party calls originated by SIP stations or trunks, and terminated by H.323 trunks, media gateways, or other vendors’ H.323 stations, will always shuffle.
E.    If a direct media path cannot be established between two IP endpoints the call will fail from release 7.0.

Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 7
When one Avaya SIP Telephone (AST) user calls another Avaya SIP Telephone (AST) user agent, Session Manager goes through different phases of processing the call. What is the maximum number of Phase Tags and what are they called?

A.    Two – imsorig and imsterm
B.    Two – origappseq and termappseq
C.    Four – imsorig, origdone, imsterm, termdone
D.    Three – ingress, process, egress

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
During installation, through the exchange of security certificates, between which three does the Trust Management Service establish trust? (Choose three.)

A.    Identity Management
B.    Communication Manager
C.    System Manager
D.    Certificate Authority
E.    Session Manager

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 9
……


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NEW QUESTION 435
What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?

A.    It keeps the communication going within the business
B.    It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives
C.    It helps the stakeholders understand their customers
D.    It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cherwell.com/blog/7-steps-to-continual-service-improvement-csi-success

NEW QUESTION 436
Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?

A.    It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by failure of the supporting activity.
B.    It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services.
C.    It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets and responsibilities of both parties.
D.    It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a service that provider delivers to its customers.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://wiki.en.it-processmaps.com/index.php/Service_Level_Management

NEW QUESTION 437
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?

A.    Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occur
B.    Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costs
C.    Management of the definitive media library (DML)
D.    Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitive_Media_Library

NEW QUESTION 438
What is the BEST description of an external customer?

A.    Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider
B.    Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services
C.    Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider
D.    Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://smallbusiness.chron.com/internal-customer-external-customer-11698.html

NEW QUESTION 439
How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?

A.    Internal service
B.    External service
C.    Mission critical service
D.    Organizational service

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 440
What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?

A.    It supports the creation of a catalogue of services
B.    It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C.    It provides quick and effective access to standard services
D.    It results in higher volumes of successful change

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 441
Which is an objective of access management?

A.    To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services
B.    To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C.    To assist with general information, complaints or comments
D.    To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 442
What should be documented as part of every process?

A.    The process owner, process policy and set of process activities
B.    The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures
C.    The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps
D.    The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 443
What BEST defines serviceability?

A.    How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
B.    How long a service or component can perform its agreed function without failure
C.    The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contract
D.    The part of the business process that is critical to providing the service

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 444
In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?

A.    People
B.    Partners
C.    Products
D.    Processes

Answer: C
Explanation:
Many designs, plans and projects fail through a lack of preparation and management. The implementation of ITIL service management as a practice is about preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of the four Ps: the People, the Processes, the Products (services, technology and tools) and the Partners (suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).
https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicedesign/ITIL_Introducing%20Service%20Design%20pdf.ashx

NEW QUESTION 445
What should a release policy include?

A.    Roles and responsibilities across all the service transition processes
B.    Roles and responsibilities for updating the configuration management database (CMDB)
C.    Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation function
D.    How request for changes (RFCs) are approved for software releases in the IT production environment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 446
Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?

A.    Service portfolio management
B.    Service level management
C.    Service catalogue management
D.    Service capacity management

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://facweb.northseattle.edu/lryan/IT109%20Intro.ppt

NEW QUESTION 447
What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?

A.    It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services
B.    It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C.    It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products
D.    It has responsibility for creating policies

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 448
What is an objective of event management?

A.    To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services
B.    To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C.    To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expecting
D.    To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 449
Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?

A.    The definitive media library
B.    The configuration management system
C.    The service portfolio
D.    The service catalogue

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 450
Which is used to assess business demand for services?

A.    Premium business assets
B.    Patterns of business activity
C.    Provider business assets
D.    Predicted business architecture

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 451
What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?

A.    It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
B.    It ensures IT services are continuously aligned to business requirements
C.    It defines the control of service assets and configurations
D.    It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 452
Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Service level management
D.    Business relationship management

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.list.lu/fileadmin/files/projects/TIPA_T10_ITIL_PAM_r2_v4.1.pdf

NEW QUESTION 453
What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?

A.    Human resource model
B.    Configuration baseline
C.    Service model
D.    RACI matrix

Answer: D
Explanation:

http://www.thecqi.org/Documents/community/South%20Western/Wessex%20Branch/CQI%20Wessex%20-%20RACI%20approach%207Sep10.pdf (page 9)

NEW QUESTION 454
Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process
B.    Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools
C.    Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational environment
D.    Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 455
Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

A.    Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
B.    Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
C.    Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
D.    Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 456
Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures

A.    1 and 2
B.    2 and 3
C.    3 and 4
D.    1 and 4

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicedesign/ITIL_Introducing%20Service%20Design%20pdf.ashx

NEW QUESTION 457
Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers?

A.    Service transition
B.    Service level management
C.    Service operation
D.    Service design

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 458
What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?

A.    It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.
B.    It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those available for deployment.
C.    It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are stored and protected.
D.    It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data.

Answer: A
Explanation:
One or more locations in which the definitive and authorized versions of all software configuration items are securely stored. The DML may also contain associated CI’s such as licenses and documentation. The DML is a single logical storage area even if there are multiple locations. The DML is controlled by service asset and configuration management and is recorded in the configuration management system.
http://www.servicemanagementart.com/uploaded-files/resources/ITIL_Foundation_Overview_v5_5_FINAL.pdf

NEW QUESTION 459
Which is an objective of the design coordination process?

A.    To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition
B.    To ensure that all changes are assessed for their impact on service designs
C.    To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers
D.    To handover new service level requirements to the service level management process

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 460
What BEST defines IT service management?

A.    An organization supplying services to only external customers
B.    The customer of an IT service provider who defines and agrees the service targets
C.    The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
D.    The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IT_service_management

NEW QUESTION 461
Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?

A.    The process practitioner
B.    The process owner
C.    The service owner
D.    The process manager

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://en.wikiversity.org/wiki/ITIL/Foundation/Service_Management/Processes_functions_and_roles

NEW QUESTION 462
What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?

A.    Technical and service
B.    Resource and proactive
C.    Reactive and technical
D.    Proactive and reactive

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://advisera.com/20000academy/knowledgebase/itil-reactive-proactive-problem-management-two-sides-coin/

NEW QUESTION 463
Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the “How do we get there” phase of the Continual Service improvement approach?

A.    Service and process improvement
B.    Baseline assessments
C.    Policy and governance review
D.    Measurable targets

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 464
An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service. What has taken place?

A.    A functional escalation
B.    A service level escalation
C.    An incident resolution
D.    A hierarchic escalation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 465
Which statement about service review meetings is FALSE?

A.    Actions from service review meetings should only be assigned to the service provider
B.    Meetings should be held on a regular basis to review service achievement
C.    Issues for the upcoming period should be discussed at the meetings
D.    Progress and success of the service improvement program (SIP) should be reviewed

Answer: A


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