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NEW QUESTION 26
What is the problem with the following SQL SELECT statement?
SELECT dstip as “Destination IP” , count(*) as session FROM $log-traffic GROUP BY dstip WHERE
5fileter and dstip is not null.

A.    The clauses are not coded in the right sequence.
B.    The clauses are not a log type.
C.    The FROM clause is not required.
D.    SQL queries are case-sensitive.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding disk log quota? (Choose two.)

A.    The FortiAnalyzer stops logging once the disk log quota is met.
B.    The FortiAnalyzer automatically sets the disk log quota based on the device.
C.    The FortiAnalyzer can overwrite the oldest logs or stop logging once the disk log quota is met.
D.    The FortiAnalyzer disk log quota is configurable, but has a minimum o 100mb a maximum based on the reserved system space.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 28
Which statement is true regarding the import/export feature?

A.    This is only a feature for reports.
B.    This feature is for reports and chart.
C.    This feature is for reports, charts, and datasets.
D.    This feature is for reports and datasets.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
Which two statements are true about Offline mode on the FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    Enabled by default.
B.    Devices cannot be managed when Offline mode is enabled.
C.    Enabling Offline mode enables fgfm protocol (TCP 541).
D.    Offline mode is enabled by default when backup is restored on FortiManager.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 30
Given the Antivirus and IPS update service is enabled, and the FortiGuard settings as shown in the exhibit. The desired behavior is for managed devices to use public servers for these updates should FortiManager become unreachable, which is not the case with the current configuration. What two actions are necessary to correct this? (Choose two.)

A.    Change the server override mode from strict to loose.
B.    Change the pat from 8890 to 443 n the Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail settings.
C.    Uncheck the option Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail.
D.    Change the IP address to a pubic FDS server and pat to 443 n the Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail settings.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 31
What remote authentication servers can you configure to validate your FortiAnalyzer administrator logons? (Choose three.)

A.    RADIUS
B.    Local
C.    LDAP
D.    PKI
E.    TACACS+

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following methods is best suited to changing device level settings on existing and future managed FortiGate devices?

A.    Configure each managed FortiGate device and install.
B.    Configure using provisioning templates and install.
C.    Configure using CLI-only objects and install.
D.    Configure a script for these settings and install.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 33
Which ports are commonly used by FortWanager? (Choose two.)

A.    TCP 541 for remote management of a ForUGate unit.
B.    TCP 5199 HA heartbeat or synchronization (FortMaTager HA cluster).
C.    TCP 703 HA heartbeat or synchronization (FortiManager HA duster).
D.    TCP 514 for remote management of a FortiGate urat.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 34
Which two statements are correct regarding FortiAnalyzer reports? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiAnalyzer provides the ability to create custom reports.
B.    FortiAnalyzer glows you to schedule reports to run.
C.    FortiAnalyzer includes pre-defined reports only.
D.    FortiAnalyzer allows reporting for FortiGate devices only.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 35
What are the operating modes of FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A.    Standalone
B.    Manager
C.    Analyzer
D.    Collector

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 36
On the Device Mangers tab, what does a red circle in the Logs field of a device indicate?

A.    A red circle indicates logs are being received.
B.    A red circle indicates the IPSec tunnel is down.
C.    A red circle indicates logs are not being received.
D.    A red circle indicates no recent logs have been received.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 37
When statement correct compares FortiManager physical and virtual appliances?

A.    Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances may mange unlimited devices and have unrestricted storage.
B.    Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances use licenses to increase managed device and storage capacity limits.
C.    Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances have unrestricted daily logging rate.
D.    Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances use model types and licenses respectively, to differentiate managed device and storage capacity limits.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 38
Select Create New, as shown in the exhibit, will result in what?

A.    A new policy package.
B.    A new policy folder.
C.    A clone of the policy package.
D.    A new policy in the policy package.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 39
What are the limitations when creating a chart using the Custom Chart wizard? (Choose two.)

A.    You cannot search multiple log types (for example, $log-traffic, $log-webfilter).
B.    You cannot select the format of the data ?all charts are table charts by default.
C.    You can only create custom charts within the root ADOM only.
D.    You can only select from two variable charts.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 40
A user created firewall address object, as shown in exhibit. This object is used in multiple policy package for multiple FortiGate devices. When the install operation is performed, which two statements are correct for devices referencing this object? (Choose two.)

A.    The object installed on the Branch Office FortiGate device will have a value of 10.0.1.0/24.
B.    The object installed on the Branch Office FortiGate device will have a value of 192.168.1.0/24.
C.    If no dynamic mapping is defined, the object installed will have a value of 192.168.1.0/24.
D.    If no dynamic mapping is defined, the object will not be installed.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 41
Which two tabs are available on the FortiManger Web-based manager? (Choose two.)

A.    Device Manager
B.    Policy & Objects
C.    FortiGate
D.    Database

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 42
Workflow mode introduces which new permissions for Super_Admin admhstrative users?

A.    Self-approval, Approval, Reject
B.    Self-disapproval, Approval, Accept
C.    Approval, Self-approval, Change Notification
D.    Change Notification, Self-disapproval, Submit

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 43
Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGate-FortiManger (FGFM) management protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    A secure communication is established between FortiManger and the managed device on port TCP 514.
B.    A secure communication is established between FortiManger and the managed device on port TCP 514.
C.    The FGFM daemons run on both FortiGate (fgfmd) and FortiManger (fgfmsd).
D.    Once the FortiGate is managed, the FGFM tunnel is authenticated and established using the IP address of FortiGate device.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 44
Which two statements are correct regarding FortiGuard features on FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A.    FortiManager can function as a local FortiGuard Distribution Server (FDS).
B.    In FortiManger HA only master FortiManager can act as an FDS server.
C.    When FortiManager is configured for closed network operation, it can connect to public FDS servers to obtain managed device information and sync packages.
D.    FortiGuard information is not synchronized across a FortiManager cluster.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 45
Which two statements are correct regarding header and footer policies? (Choose two.)

A.    Header and footer policies can only be created h the root ADOM.
B.    Header and footer policies can only be created in the global ADOM.
C.    Header and footer policies are created in policy packages and assigned to ADOM policy packages.
D.    Header and footer policies can be modified h the assigned ADOM policy package.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 46
What is “hot swapping”?

A.    Hot swapping means administrators can confine FortiAnalyzer to write to all hard device in order to make the array fault tolerant.
B.    Hot swapping means administrators can replace a failed disk on devices that support software RAID while the device is still running.
C.    Hot swapping means administrators can ensue the parity data of a redundant drive is valid while the device is still running.
D.    Hot swapping means administrators can replace a fated d* on devices that support hardware RAID while the device is still running.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 47
What is the purpose of locking an ADOM revision?

A.    To prevent further changes from Device Manager.
B.    To disable revision history.
C.    To prevent auto deletion.
D.    To lock the Policy and Objects tab.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 48
Which two statements are correct regarding synchronization between primary and secondary devices in a FortManager HA duster? (Choose two.)

A.    Al device configurations ncbdng global databases are synchrorized in the HA cluster.
B.    FortiGuard databases are downloaded separately by each cluster device.
C.    FortiGuard databases are downloaded by the primary FortManager device and then synchronized with all secondary devices.
D.    Local logs and log configuration settings are synchronized in the HA cluster.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibits.

A.    You cannot use SQL syntax h the Search field of the FortiView > Log View page.
B.    Case Sensitive Search is enabled.
C.    There are no logs that include https as a service.
D.    You cannot search for logs from the FortiView > Log View page.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 50
Which tabs do not appear when FortiAnalyzer is operating in Collector mode?

A.    FortiView
B.    Event Management
C.    Device Manger
D.    Reporting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
……

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NEW QUESTION 193
You need to generate the report for the WGBLeaseLeader app. Which Azure service should you use?

A.    Azure Scheduler
B.    Azure Data Lake Store
C.    Azure Storage Queue
D.    Azure Stream Analytics

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 194
Drag and Drop Question
You need to configure Azure Security Center to assist the CSIRT team. Which services should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure Security Center services to the correct key security areas. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 195
You need to support loan processing for the WGBLoanMaster app. Which technology should you use?

A.    Azure Storage Queues
B.    Azure Service Fabric
C.    Azure Service Bus Queues
D.    Azure Event Hubs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 196
You need to implement the loan aggregation process for the WGBLoanMaster app. Which technology should you use?

A.    Azure virtual machine
B.    Azure Cloud Service worker role
C.    Azure Batch
D.    Azure WebJob

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 197
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are designing the deployment of resources in Azure. You plan to use templates to customize deployment options. You need to ensure that Azure services are deployed and updated identically. Solution: You customize the $schema element of the template. Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 198
You are designing a web app deployment in Azure. You need to ensure that inbound requests to the web app are routed based on the endpoint that has the lowest latency. What should you use?

A.    Azure health probes
B.    Azure Fabric Controller
C.    Azure Load Balancer
D.    Azure Traffic Manager

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 199
……

NEW QUESTION 200
You are designing the deployment of virtual machines (VMs) and web services that run in Azure. You need to specify the desired state of a node and ensure that the node remains at that state. What should you use?

A.    Microsoft Azure Pack
B.    Service Management Automation
C.    System Center 2016 Orchestrator
D.    Azure Automation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 201
You need to recommend an authentication solution for the DistributionTracking application. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    a certificate
B.    a Graph API endpoint
C.    a security principal in Azure Active Directory
D.    a managed service account in Azure Active Directory

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 202
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same sc Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are designing a storage solution to support on-premises resources and Azure-hosted resources. You need to provide on-premises storage that has built-in replication to Azure. Solution: You include Azure File Storage in the design. Does this solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 203
……

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NEW QUESTION 85
Firewall administrators cannot authenticate to a firewall GUI. Which two logs on that firewall will contain authentication-related information useful in troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)

A.    ms log
B.    authd log
C.    System log
D.    Traffic log
E.    dp-monitor log

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 86
Which option is an IPv6 routing protocol?

A.    RIPv3
B.    OSPFv3
C.    OSPv3
D.    BGP NG

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 87
A network security engineer has a requirement to allow an external server to access an internal web server. The internal web server must also initiate connections with the external server. What can be done to simplify the NAT policy?

A.    Configure ECMP to handle matching NAT traffic
B.    Configure a NAT Policy rule with Dynamic IP and Port
C.    Create a new Source NAT Policy rule that matches the existing traffic and enable the Bi- directional option
D.    Create a new Destination NAT Policy rule that matches the existing traffic and enable the Bi-directional option

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan-os/pan-os/networking/nat-configuration-examples

NEW QUESTION 88
A network design change requires an existing firewall to start accessing Palo Alto Updates from a data plane interface address instead of the management interface. Which configuration setting needs to be modified?

A.    Service route
B.    Default route
C.    Management profile
D.    Authentication profile

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 89
A Network Administrator wants to deploy a Large Scale VPN solution. The Network Administrator has chosen a GlobalProtect Satellite solution. This configuration needs to be deployed to multiple remote offices and the Network Administrator decides to use Panorama to deploy the configurations. How should this be accomplished?

A.    Create a Template with the appropriate IKE Gateway settings
B.    Create a Template with the appropriate IPSec tunnel settings
C.    Create a Device Group with the appropriate IKE Gateway settings
D.    Create a Device Group with the appropriate IPSec tunnel settings

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 90
Which CLI command displays the current management plan memory utilization?

A.    > show system info
B.    > show system resources
C.    > debug management-server show
D.    > show running resource-monitor

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Management-Articles/Show-System-Resource-Command-Displays-CPU-Utilization-of-9999/ta-p/58149

NEW QUESTION 91
Which URL Filtering Security Profile action logs the URL Filtering category to the URL Filtering log?

A.    Log
B.    Alert
C.    Allow
D.    Default

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan-os/pan-os/url-filtering/url-filtering-profile-actions

NEW QUESTION 92
What are two prerequisites for configuring a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls in an active/passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two.)

A.    The firewalls must have the same set of licenses.
B.    The management interfaces must to be on the same network.
C.    The peer HA1 IP address must be the same on both firewalls.
D.    HA1 should be connected to HA1. Either directly or with an intermediate Layer 2 device.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 93
Which three rule types are available when defining policies in Panorama? (Choose three.)

A.    Pre Rules
B.    Post Rules
C.    Default Rules
D.    Stealth Rules
E.    Clean Up Rules

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/71/pan-os/web-interface-help/panorama-web-interface/defining-policies-on-panorama

NEW QUESTION 94
A network design calls for a “router on a stick” implementation with a PA-5060 performing inter-VLAN routing All VLAN-tagged traffic will be forwarded to the PA-5060 through a single dot1q trunk interface. Which interface type and configuration setting will support this design?

A.    Trunk interface type with specified tag
B.    Layer 3 interface type with specified tag
C.    Layer 2 interface type with a VLAN assigned
D.    Layer 3 subinterface type with specified tag

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 95
Which Panorama feature allows for logs generated by Panorama to be forwarded to an external Security Information and Event Management(SIEM) system?

A.    Panorama Log Settings
B.    Panorama Log Templates
C.    Panorama Device Group Log Forwarding
D.    Collector Log Forwarding for Collector Groups

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/61/panorama/panorama_adminguide/manage-log-collection/enable-log-forwarding-from-panorama-to-external-destinations

NEW QUESTION 96
Which URL Filtering Security Profile action togs the URL Filtering category to the URL Filtering log?

A.    Log
B.    Alert
C.    Allow
D.    Default

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 97
Several offices are connected with VPNs using static IPV4 routes. An administrator has been tasked with implementing OSPF to replace static routing. Which step is required to accoumplish this goal?

A.    Assign an IP address on each tunnel interface at each site
B.    Enable OSPFv3 on each tunnel interface and use Area ID 0.0.0.0
C.    Assign OSPF Area ID 0.0.0.0 to all Ethernet and tunnel interfaces
D.    Create new VPN zones at each site to terminate each VPN connection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 98
Which authentication source requires the installation of Palo Alto Networks software, other than PAN-OS 7x, to obtain a username-to-IP-address mapping?

A.    Microsoft Active Directory
B.    Microsoft Terminal Services
C.    Aerohive Wireless Access Point
D.    Palo Alto Networks Captive Portal

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 99
Several offices are connected with VPNs using static IPv4 routes. An administrator has been tasked with implementing OSPF to replace static routing. Which step is required to accomplish this goal?

A.    Assign an IP address on each tunnel interface at each site
B.    Enable OSPFv3 on each tunnel interface and use Area ID 0.0.0.0
C.    Assign OSPF Area ID 0.0.0.0 to all Ethernet and tunnel interfaces
D.    Create new VPN zones at each site to terminate each VPN connection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 100
People are having intermittent quality issues during a live meeting via which web application?

A.    Use QoS profile to define QoS Classes
B.    Use QoS Classes to define QoS Profile
C.    Use QoS Profile to define QoS Classes and a QoS Policy
D.    Use QoS Classes to define QoS Profile and a QoS Policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101
When is it necessary to activate a license when provisioning a new Palo Alto Networks firewall?

A.    When configuring Certificate Profiles
B.    When configuring GlobalProtect portal
C.    When configuring User Activity Reports
D.    When configuring Antivirus Dynamic Updates

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 211
Your database instance has the following parameter setting:
OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX = OPS$
You execute the following command:

And then grantOPS$GUEST_USER the CREATE SESSION privilege. Which two statements are true?

A.    GUEST_USER can query the tables created in the USERS tablespace by default.
B.    The authentication details for GUEST_USER are stored in the database password file.
C.    A local GUEST_USER OS account should exist before GUEST_USER can log on to the database.
D.    GUEST_USER can log on to the database without specifying a username and password.
E.    GUEST_USER is forced to change the password at the first login.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 212
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backupis taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup. In which three scenarios do you need media recovery?

A.    loss of all the copies of the control file
B.    loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C.    loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D.    loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
E.    logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F.    abnormal termination of the database instance

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 213
Your database has been running with a peak load for the past hour. You want to preserve the performance statistics collected during this period forcomparison when you analyze the performance of the database later. What must you do to achieve this?

A.    Increase the window size of the moving window baseline so that it equals the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot retention period.
B.    Createa baseline on a pair of snapshots that span the peak load period.
C.    Generate Active Session History reports for the peak load period.
D.    Set the snapshot retention period in AWR to 60 to avoid automatic purging of snapshots for the past hour.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 214
Which three statements are true about space usage alerts?

A.    Alerts are issued only when the critical threshold for space available in a tablespace is breached.
B.    The sum of active extents and allocated user quotas is considered to compute space usage for an undo tablespace.
C.    Databasealerts can provide warnings about low space availability at both tablespace and segment levels.
D.    Alerts are not issued for locally managed tablespaces that are offline or in read-only mode.
E.    A newly created locally managed tablespace is automatically assigned the default threshold values defined for a database.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120

NEW QUESTION 215
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of configuring temporary undo?

A.    Performance improves because less redo is writtento the redo log.
B.    Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
C.    Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.
D.    Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary tables.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/temporary-undo-12cr1

NEW QUESTION 216
Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A.    You cannot specify how partitioned tables shouldbe handled during an import operation.
B.    Only data can be compressed during an export operation.
C.    Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
D.    Tables cannot be renamed during an import operation.
E.    Metadata that is exported andimported can be filtered based on objects and object types.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 217
Your database is running in NOARCHIVING mode. Examine the following parameters:

You execute the following command after performing a STARTUP MOUNT:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A.    It executes successfully and sets the Fast Recovery Area as the local archive destination.
B.    It executes successfully and issues a warning to set LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST while opening the database.
C.    It fails and returns an error about LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST not being set.
D.    It executes successfully and sets $ORACLE_HOME/dbs as the default archive destination.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 218
Your production database uses file system storage. You want to move storage to Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM). How would you achieve this?

A.    by using a transportable database
B.    by using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
C.    by using Data Pump
D.    by using RMAN

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951.pdf (p.184)

NEW QUESTION 219
Which two statements are true about Oracle network connections?

A.    A listener may listen on behalf of only one database instance at a time.
B.    A server process checks a user’s authentication credentials and creates a session if the credentials are valid.
C.    The listener continuously monitors a connection after the user process connects to a service handler.
D.    The listener always spawns a new server process to deal with each new connection.
E.    A connection request from a client is always first received by a listener running on the port that is used for the connection request for the database server.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 220
Which two actions does an incremental checkpoint perform?

A.    It signals CKPT to write thecheckpoint position to the data file headers.
B.    It writes the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
C.    It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D.    It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_incremental_checkpoint.htm

NEW QUESTION 221
Which statement is true aboutusing the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade your database from Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c?

A.    It terminates if the SYSTEM tablespace in the source database is not autoextensible.
B.    It automatically makes necessary changes to Oracle environment variables.
C.    It automatically enables unified auditing in the upgraded database.
D.    It automatically adds new data files if there is not enough disk space to grow.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17222/upgrade.htm#insertedID5

NEW QUESTION 222
Examine the parameters for a database instance:

Your database has three undo tablespaces and the default undo tablespace is not autoextensible. Resumable space allocation is not enabled for any sessions in the database instance. What is the effect on new transactions when all undo space in the default undo tablespace is in use by activetransactions?

A.    Transactions write their undo in the SYSTEM undo segment.
B.    Transactions fail.
C.    Transactions wait until space becomes available in UNDOTBS1.
D.    Transactions write their undo in a temporary tablespace.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 223
What should you do to ensure that a job stored minimal job metadata and runtime data on disk, and uses only existing PL/SQL programs?

A.    Create an event-based job.
B.    Create a lightweight job.
C.    Specify the job as amember of a job class.
D.    Use a job array.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schedover004.htm#BGBJGHBH

NEW QUESTION 224
You want to schedule a job to rebuild atable’s indexes after a bulk insert, which must be scheduled as soon as a file containing data arrives on the system. What would you do to accomplish this?

A.    Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild indexes on the table.
B.    Create a file watcher for the bulk inserts and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
C.    Create a job array and add a job for bulk insert and a job to rebuild indexes to the job array.
D.    Create an event-based job for the filearrival event, then create a job for bulk insert, and then create a job to rebuild indexes.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 225
You plan to install the Oracle Database 12c software on a new server. The database will use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and Oracle Restart. Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server is already installed on the server. You want to configure job role separation. You create the following operating system users and groups:
– The user oracle as the owner of the Oracle database installation
– The user grid as the owner of Oracle Grid Infrastructure
– The group oinstall as an Oracle Inventory group
– The group dba as the OSDBA group for Oracle database
– The group asmdbaas the OSDBA group for Oracle ASM
– The group asmadmin as the administration privileges group for Oracle ASM
– The group asmoper as the group for Oracle ASM
Which two additional tasks should you perform with regard to the OS-level owners and groups?

A.    creating a separate central inventory group for the Oracle Database 12c installation
B.    assigning oinstall as the primary group for the oracle user
C.    assigning asmadmin and asmoper as primary groups for the oracle user
D.    creating OS groups associated with the OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBA, and OSKMDBA system privileges
E.    assigning asmdba as the secondary group for the oracle user

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 226
Which two statements are true about the (PMON) background process in Oracle Database 12c?

A.    It records checkpoint information in the control file.
B.    It frees unused temporary segments.
C.    It kills sessions that exceed idle time.
D.    It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the database instance.
E.    It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/122/CNCPT/process-architecture.htm#CNCPT9840

NEW QUESTION 227
You want to upgrade an Oracle Database running Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c. Which three tasks should be performed before a manual upgrade?

A.    running preupgrad.sql in Oracle Database 11g to generate fix-up scripts and a log file
B.    running utlu121s.sql from the new Oracle home to display information about the required initialization parameters
C.    copying the initialization parameter file to the new Oracle home
D.    copying the password file to the new Oracle home
E.    copying net configuration files to the new Oracle home

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 228
You want to create a database and you have the following:
– Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed and configured
– Oracle Database Vault is installed in ORACLE_HOME to be used for this database
– Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control isavailable and an agent is deployed on the database server
Examine the requirements:
1. configuring the database instance to support shared server mode
2. using Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing database files
3. configuring a naming methodto help a remote user connect to a database instance
4. configuring the Fast Recovery Area
5. configuring Database Vault
6. configuring Enterprise Manager (EM) Database Express
7. registering with EM Cloud Control
8. configuring remote log archive destinations
9. enabling daily incremental backups
10. configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces
Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

A.    1, 2, 4, 5,7, 8, 9 and 10
B.    1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
C.    1, 2, 3, 8, 9 and 10
D.    1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
E.    1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 229
Which two options can be configured for an existing database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

A.    Configure Label Security
B.    Database Vault in ORACLE_HOME
C.    Oracle Suggested BackupStrategy
D.    Database Resident Connection Pooling
E.    Nondefault blocksize tablespaces

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 230
Which two statements are true about availability audit features after migration to unified auditing?

A.    The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post- migrated database.
B.    Operating systemaudit trail is available in the post-migrated database.
C.    Network auditing is available in the post-migrated database.
D.    Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_changes.htm#DBSEG341

NEW QUESTION 231
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A.    statistics recommendations
B.    SQL profile recommendations
C.    SQL statement restructure recommendations
D.    creation of materialized views toimprove query performance

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28274/sql_tune.htm#i36217

NEW QUESTION 232
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?

A.    Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B.    Determine if the network is up or down.
C.    Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D.    Identify legitimate users of a system.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?

A.    actual physical location of an object in memory
B.    set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C.    set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D.    system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which information security property is supported by encryption?

A.    sustainability
B.    integrity
C.    confidentiality
D.    availability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?

A.    Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B.    Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C.    Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D.    Allow specific files and deny everything else.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

A.    input validation
B.    hash collision
C.    command injection
D.    integer overflow

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

A.    running program
B.    unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C.    database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D.    basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which definition of permissions in Linux is true?

A.    rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
B.    table maintenance program
C.    written affidavit that you have to sign before using the system
D.    attributes of ownership and control of an object

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Which hashing algorithm is the least secure?

A.    MD5
B.    RC4
C.    SHA-3
D.    SHA-2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which protocol is expected to have NTP a user agent, host, and referrer headers in a packet capture?

A.    NTP
B.    HTTP
C.    DNS
D.    SSH

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?

A.    if the affected host needs a software update
B.    how the malware entered our network
C.    why the malware is still in our network
D.    if the affected system needs replacement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?

A.    IDS log
B.    proxy log
C.    NetFlow log
D.    syslog

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?

A.    snooping
B.    hacking
C.    theft
D.    assault

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)

A.    determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B.    ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C.    identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D.    determining what and how much data may have been affected
E.    identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 5
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A.    col[0-9]+our
B.    colo?ur
C.    colou?r
D.    ]a-z]{7}

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which component of the NIST SP800-61 r2 incident handling strategy reviews data?

A.    preparation
B.    detection and analysis
C.    containment, eradication, and recovery
D.    post-incident analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
Which option is generated when a file is run through an algorithm and generates a string specific to the contents of that file?

A.    URL
B.    hash
C.    IP address
D.    destination port

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
Which data type is protected under the PCI compliance framework?

A.    credit card type
B.    primary account number
C.    health conditions
D.    provision of individual care

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?

A.    direct
B.    corroborative
C.    indirect
D.    circumstantial
E.    textual

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You suspect that you are receiving messages with a forged From: address. What could help you find out where the mail is originating?

A.    Install TCP wrappers, and log all connections on port 25
B.    A dd the command ‘FR-strlog’ to the sendmail.cf file
C.    Add the command ‘define (‘LOG_REAL_FROM’) dnl’ to the sendmail.mc file
D.    Run a filter in the aliases file that checks the originating address when mail arrives
E.    Look in the ReceiveD. and Message-ID. parts of the mail header

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 2
Which TWO of the following options are valid, in the /etc/exports file?

A.    rw
B.    ro
C.    rootsquash
D.    norootsquash
E.    uid

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3
The Internet gateway connects the clients with the Internet by using a Squid proxy. Only the clients from the network 192.168.1.0/24 should be able to use the proxy. Which of the following configuration sections is correct?

A.    acl local src 192.168.1.0/24
http_allow local
B.    acl local src 192.168.1.0/24
http_access allow local
C.    acl local src 192.168.1.0/24
http access allow local
D.    acl local src 192.168.1.0/24
http_access_allow=local
E.    acl local src 192.168.1.0/24
httpd local allow

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
A server was rebuilt using a full system backup but with a different disk setup. The kernel won’t boot, complaining it cannot find the root filesystem. Which of the following commands will fix this error by pointing the kernel image to the new root partition?

A.    mkbootdisk
B.    tune2fs
C.    rdev
D.    grub-install
E.    fdisk

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
What is the name of the dovecot configuration variable that specifies the location of user mail?

A.    mbox
B.    mail_location
C.    user_dir
D.    maildir
E.    user_mail_dir

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
The listing below is an excerpt from a Squid configuration filE.

A.    Users connecting from localhost will be able to access web sites through this proxy.
B.    It’s necessary to include a http_access rule denying access to all, at the end of the rules.
C.    It’s possible to use this proxy to access SSL enabled web sites listening on any port.
D.    This proxy can’t be used to access FTP servers listening on the default port.
E.    This proxy is misconfigured and no user will be able to access web sites through it.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Some users are unable to connect to specific local hosts by name, while accessing hosts in other zones works as expected. Given that the hosts are reachable by their IP addresses, which is the default log file that could provide hints about the problem?

A.    /var/named/log
B.    /var/lib/named/dev/log
C.    /var/log/bind_errors
D.    /var/log/bind/errors
E.    /var/log/messages

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following lines in the Apache configuration file would allow only clients with a valid certificate to access the website?

A.    SSLCA conf/ca.crt
B.    AuthType ssl
C.    IfModule libexec/ssl.c
D.    SSLRequire
E.    SSLVerifyClient require

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 9
What tool scans log files for unsuccessful login attempts and blocks the offending IP addresses with firewall rules?

A.    nessus
B.    nmap
C.    nc
D.    watchlogs
E.    fail2ban

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 10
Which Apache directive allows the use of external configuration files defined by the directive AccessFileName?

A.    AllowExternalConfig
B.    AllowAccessFile
C.    AllowConfig
D.    IncludeAccessFile
E.    AllowOverride

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 11
On bootup, LILO prints out LIL and stops. What is the cause of this?

A.    The descriptor table is bad
B.    LILO failed to load the second stage loader
C.    LILO failed to load the primary stage loader
D.    LILO failed to locate the kernel image

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
A GRUB boot loader installed in the MBR was accidentally overwritten. After booting with a rescue CDROM, how can the lost GRUB first stage loader be recovered?

A.    Use dd to restore a previous backup of the MBR
B.    Install LILO since there is no easy way to recover GRUB
C.    Running mformat will create a new MBR and fix GRUB using info from grub.conf
D.    Run grub-install after verifying that grub.conf is correct
E.    Run fdisk –mbr /dev/had assuming that the boot harddisk is /dev/hda

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
After setting up Apache to run inside a chroot jail as a non-root user, httpd no longer starts. What is the primary cause of the problem?

A.    Apache needs to start as root to bind to port 80
B.    Apache cannot read the main index.html file because it was not moved into the chroot environment
C.    A LoadModule line for mod_chroot needs to be added to httpd.conf
D.    Apache requires a VirtualHost directive when running from a chroot environment
E.    The mod_chroot configuration needs the absolute path to the chroot environment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which command is used to install a new LILO boot loader?

A.    lilo
B.    lilo-config
C.    lilo-install
D.    install-lilo

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
What are the main network services used by the PXE protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS
B.    DHCP
C.    HTTP
D.    TFTP
E.    NFS

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 3
What is the functionality that PXE provides?

A.    The ability to boot a computer using its network interface.
B.    The ability to launch an remote X11 desktop on a computer.
C.    The ability to verify a system’s configuration after completing the boot process.
D.    The ability to verify a system’s configuration before completing the boot process.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
In case the file containing the Linux kernel is lost, what happens when the system is booting?

A.    The system starts normally since the bootloader copies the kernel to the master boot record of the hard disk.
B.    Instead of the kernel, the initramfs is loaded and instructed to mount the root filesystem and reinstall the kernel from the original package or from source.
C.    The bootloader mounts the root filesystem read-only and launches /bin/sh directly in order to allow the administrator to reinstall the kernel.
D.    Without a kernel a system cannot boot and, depending on the bootloader, an error is displayed.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
A system with SysV-init has a service installed called apache2. Which file controls the start and stop of this service and is referenced by the various runlevel directories?

A.    /etc/init.d/apache2
B.    /etc/rc2.d/70apache2
C.    /etc/rc2.d/apache2
D.    /etc/rc2.d/apache2.start

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which option to the update-rc.d command will cause the removal of all symlinks to /etc/rcX.d/*test2 even when the script /etc/init.d/test2 still exists?

A.    -d
B.    -f
C.    -n
D.    -r

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
After changing the default runlevel in the SysV-init configuration file, the system boots in a different than intended runlevel. Where else could this different runlevel be defined?

A.    In the /etc/sysctl.conf
B.    In the boot loader configuration file
C.    In the /etc/runlevel file
D.    In the /boot/initramfs file
E.    In the /etc/rc.d/rc.local file

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Where is the LILO boot loader code typically installed on a system with only a single Linux installation and no other operating systems?

A.    In the master boot record.
B.    In the boot sector.
C.    In the /boot directory.
D.    At the start of the kernel.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a CD-ROM filesystem standard?

A.    OSI9660
B.    ISO9660
C.    SR0FS
D.    ISO8859
E.    ROM-EO

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
How can the label root be added to the ext2 filesystem on /dev/sda1?

A.    relabel /dev/sda1 root
B.    tune2fs -L root /dev/sda1
C.    echo ‘root’ > /proc/fs/sda1/label
D.    labelfs –device /dev/sda1 root

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
What component of a system does smartd monitor?

A.    CPU
B.    RAM
C.    Hard drives
D.    Ethernet traffic

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which files are updated as devices are mounted and unmounted to provide information on the currently mounted devices and the options used? (Choose two.)

A.    /proc/dtab
B.    /etc/mtab
C.    /etc/fstab
D.    /proc/mounts
E.    /proc/devices

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 13
What is the main template file used by autofs?

A.    default.maps
B.    auto.conf
C.    auto.master
D.    autofs.master

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to configure Server1 as a Web Application Proxy. Which server role or role service should you install on Server1?

A.    Remote Access
B.    Active Directory Federation Services
C.    Web Server (IIS)
D.    DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
E.    Network Policy and Access Services

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Contoso.com has the following configuration:
PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode
Windows2008R2Forest
PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode
Windows2008R2Domain
PS C:\>
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration. You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment. Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema (not just domain schema).

NEW QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains a server named Server1. An administrator named Admin01 plans to configure Server1 as a standalone certification authority (CA). You need to identify to which group Admin01 must be a member to configure Server1 as a standalone CA. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which group should you add Admin01?

A.    Administrators on Server1.
B.    Domain Admins in contoso.com
C.    Cert Publishers on Server1
D.    Key Admins in contoso.com

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 desktop computers and 500 laptops. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the computer accounts for the desktop computers and the laptops. You create a Windows PowerShell script named Script1.ps1 that removes temporary files and cookies. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1. You need to run the script once weekly only on the laptops. What should you do?

A.    In GPO1, create a File preference that uses item-level targeting.
B.    In GPO1, create a Scheduled Tasks preference that uses item-level targeting.
C.    In GPO1, configure the File System security policy. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
D.    In GPO1, add Script1.ps1 as a startup script. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Contoso.com has the following configuration:
PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode
Windows2008R2Forest
PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode
Windows2008R2Domain
PS C:\>
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration. You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment. Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

NEW QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop Question
Your company has multiple offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using DEFAULTIPSITELINK. The company plans to open a new office. The new office will have a domain controller and 100 client computers. You install Windows Server 2016 on a member server in the new office. The new server will become a domain controller. You need to deploy the domain controller to the new office. The solution must ensure that the client computers in the new office will authenticate by using the local domain controller. Which three actions should you perform next in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of two servers and the user account of a user named User1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You have an application named App1 that installs by using an application installer named App1.exe. You need to publish App1 to OU1 by using Group Policy. What should you do?

A.    Create a Config.zap file and add a file to the File System node to the Computer Configuration node of GPO1.
B.    Create a Config.xml file and add a software installation package to the User Configuration node of GPO1.
C.    Create a Config.zap file and add a software installation package to the User Configuration node of GPO1.
D.    Create a Config.xml file and add a software installation package to the Computer Configuration node of GPO1.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
You deploy a new enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You plan to issue certificates based on the User certificate template. You need to ensure that the issued certificates are valid for two years and support autoenrollment. What should you do first?

A.    Run the certutil.exe command and specify the resubmit parameter.
B.    Duplicate the User certificate template.
C.    Add a new certificate template for CA1 to issue.
D.    Modify the Request Handling settings for the CA.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of question that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a volume named Volume1. Dynamic Access Control is configured. A resource property named Property1 was created in the domain. You need to ensure that Property1 is set to a value of Big for all of the files in Volume1 that are larger than 10 MB. Which tool should you use?

A.    File Explorer
B.    Shared Folders
C.    Server Manager
D.    Disk Management
E.    Storage Explorer
F.    Computer Management
G.    System Configuration
H.    File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)

Answer: F

NEW QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Secure that contains all servers. You install Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 on a server named Server1. You need to export the SCM Pnnt Server Secunty baseline and to deploy the baseline to a server named Server2. What should you do? To answer, select the appropnate options in the answer area.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host. You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012. All servers run Windows Server 2016. You create a new bastion forest named admin.contoso.com. The forest functional level of admin.contoso.com is Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to implement a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Raise the forest functional level of admm.contoso.com.
B.    Deploy Microsoft Identify Management (MIM) 2016 to admin.contoso.com.
C.    Configure contoso.com to trust admin.contoso.com.
D.    Deploy Microsoft Identity Management (MIM) 2016 to contoso.com.
E.    Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
F.    Configure admin.contoso.com to trust contoso.com.

Answer: CF

NEW QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named conioso.com. The domain contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 8.1 and 1,000 client computers that run Windows 10. You deploy a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. You create a computer group tor each organizational unit (OU) that contains client computers. You configure all of the client computers to receive updates from WSUS. You discover that all of the client computers appear m the Unassigned Computers computer group in the Update Services console. You need to ensure that the client computers are added automatically to the computer group that corresponds to the location of the computer account in Active Directory. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    From Group Policy objects (GPOs), configure the Enable client-side targeting setting.
B.    From the Update Services console, configure the Computers option.
C.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, create a domain local distribution group for each WSUS computer group.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the flags attnbute of each OU.
E.    From the Update Services console, run the WSUS Server Configuration Wizard.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6
Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is Independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a shared folder named Share1. You need to encrypt the contents of Share1. Which tool should you use?

A.    File Explorer
B.    Shared Folders
C.    Server Manager
D.    Disk Management
E.    Storage Explorer
F.    Computer Management
G.    System Configuration
H.    File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)

Answer: H

NEW QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
– Start of repeated scenario
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1.
– End of repeated scenario
You need to ensure that you can deploy a shielded virtual machine to Server4. Which server role should you deploy?

A.    Hyper-V
B.    Device Health Attestation
C.    Network Controller
D.    Host Guardian Service

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM?

A.    FTP
B.    CIFS
C.    HTTP
D.    TFTP

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can configure CIFS and NFS protocols on the Storage Virtual Machine (SVM) to provide file-level data access for NAS clients. To enable CIFS protocol, you must create the data LIFs and the CIFS server. To enable NFS protocol, you can specify the NIS details in addition to the data LIFs.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1354558/html/GUID-75523E3A-839A-4530-919D-29F98AB6C2E7.html

NEW QUESTION 2
When creating a data aggregate, what is the default minimum number of disks for RAID4 and RAID-DP?

A.    5 for RAID4 and 9 for RAID-DP
B.    4 for RAID4 and 7 for RAID-DP
C.    3 for RAID4 and 5 for RAID-DP
D.    2 for RAID4 and 3 for RAID-DP

Answer: C
Explanation:
For 8.2, the minimum number of disks for RAID-DP is 5 and for RAID4 is 3.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1203768/html/html/GUID-0FCA2F39-9B0A-4FE7-9F22-4479600B8397.html

NEW QUESTION 3
What are the two valid settings for fractional reserve? (Choose two.)

A.    100%
B.    20%
C.    0%
D.    50%

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The fractional reserve setting is expressed as a percentage; the only valid values are 0 and 100 percent. You use the vol options command to set fractional reserve.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368845/html/GUID-596042AF-8E9C-4187-969C-633DFDD5A936.html

NEW QUESTION 4
How many disks reside in a DS4246 shelf?

A.    46
B.    42
C.    14
D.    24

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.netapp.com/uk/products/storage-systems/disk-shelves-and-storage-media/disk-shelves-tech-specs.aspx (See the Table).

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two NFS versions are supported on clustered Data ONTAP 8.3? (Choose two.)

A.    NFSv1
B.    NFSv2
C.    NFSv3
D.    NFSv4

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Configure clustered Data ONTAP 8.3 for NFSv3, NFSv4, and NFSv4.1, including parallel NFS (pNFS).

NEW QUESTION 6
A customer wants to use a UTA2 PCIe card in a new FAS8000 system. Which three steps must be completed before the customer is able to use the ports for Fc access to an FCP switch? (Choose three.)

A.    Use the system hardware unified-connect modify command to change the personality from initiator to target.
B.    Verify the WWPN of the UTA2 so that these can be used in the igroup to map the LUNs for host access.
C.    Verify that the correct SFP+ is installed for FC.
D.    Verify the card’s hardware configuration by running the systemhardware unified-connect show command.
E.    Verify that Data ONTAP iSCSI, GIFS, and NFS are licensed on the system.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368525/html/GUID-EC0DDAEE-1178-48EF-B90D-0A7DF498F71B.html

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two default SVM roles are available when an SVM is created? (Choose two.)

A.    vsadmin-readonly
B.    root
C.    vsadmin
D.    admin

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368701/html/GUID-FFE11F8C-490B-4D6D-A18E-3488275029C7.html (See the table 1st point and last point).

NEW QUESTION 8
In the storage failover command, what does the bypass-optimization option do?

A.    It takes over the partner node without performing aggregate relocation.
B.    It migrates all logical interfaces during takeover.
C.    It takes over without migrating all logical interfaces.
D.    It takes over the partner node performing aggregate relocation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Take over the partner node without performing storage failover takeover -bypass-aggregate relocation optimization true.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1367947/html/GUID-4B814447-521D-43B7-846D-AB4EF86A25A1.html

NEW QUESTION 9
Which type of upgrade is supported from a single-node FAS2552 to a dual-node cluster with clustered Data ONTAP 8.3 when all 10 GB ports are used for host access?

A.    a disruptive upgrade from a single-node cluster to a dual-node HA cluster
B.    a non-disruptive upgrade of a single-node cluster into a dual-node HA cluster
C.    a single-node cluster upgraded by migration of data to another single-node cluster
D.    a disruptive single-node cluster upgraded to a dual-node HA cluster by adding 10 Gb Ethernet cards

Answer: A
Explanation:
There are no Slots in FAS2552. In Hardware universe there are no supported Adapter Cards for FAS25xx. FAS 2552 uses 1 Gb ports for cluster interconnect as in Question 52 described.

NEW QUESTION 10
Which two solutions are valid for clustered Data ONTAP MetroCluster? (Choose two.)

A.    FAS3200 series controllers
B.    FAS2500 series controller
C.    four nodes at each site
D.    two nodes at each site

Answer: AD
Explanation:
FAS 2500 series is not supported for Metro Cluster configuration.

NEW QUESTION 11
Which type of connectivity is supported when connecting third-party arrays through FlexArray Virtualization for back-end storage to a NetApp cluster?

A.    iSCSI
B.    SAS
C.    FC
D.    Infiniband

Answer: C
Explanation:
On the back end, FlexArray attaches to your existing storage arrays via Fibre Channel and provides a virtualization layer between the storage array and the hosts.

NEW QUESTION 12
A customer has an aggregate, aggr1_01 with three RAID groups: rg0, rg1, and rg2. Each RAID group has 15 disks, and the aggregate’s maximum RAID group size is set to 18 disks. The customer adds three additional disks to the aggregate using the following command:
storage aggregate add-disks -aggregate aggr1_01 -diskcount 3
How are the RAID groups affected by this command?

A.    The disks are added to a new RAID group rg3.
B.    Each RAID group receives one additional disk.
C.    The three disks are added to RAID group rg2.
D.    The three disks are added to RAID group rg0.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Tested with a 4 node clustered Data ONTAP 8.3 cluster
Cluster::*> storage  aggregate  add-disks -aggregate aggr2 -diskcount 3
Cluster::*> run -node node03 sysconfig -V
volume aggr2 (3 RAID groups):
group 2: 18 disks
group 1: 15 disks
group 0: 15 disks

NEW QUESTION 13
Which three disk shelf types are supported in clustered Data ONTAP 8.3? (Choose three.)

A.    DS4486
B.    DS14-MK4-FC
C.    DS14-MK2-FC
D.    DS14-MK2-AT
E.    DS14

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Disk shelves supported:
DS2246 (2U; 24 drives, 2.5″ SFF)
DS4246 (4U; 24 drives, 3.5″ LFF)
DS4486 (4U; 48 drives, 3.5″ LFF)
DS4243 (4U; 24 drives, 3.5″ LFF) supported for upgrades only DS14 disk shelves (mk2-AT, mk4) are supported for upgrades only

NEW QUESTION 14
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NEW QUESTION 1
What is installed on your Linux host when you install the Linux Unified Host Utilities 7.0?

A.    drivers and firmware
B.    software iSCSI initiator
C.    SAN Toolkit data collection utility
D.    nSANity

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1654941

NEW QUESTION 2
You configure space-reserved LUNs on thick-provisioned volumes, and you want to guarantee overwrites. How would you accomplish this task?

A.    Set the fractional reserve to 0%.
B.    Enable space allocation.
C.    Set the fractional reserve to 100%.
D.    Disable the fractional reserve.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1636035 (page 18)

NEW QUESTION 3
Which objects reside inside an igroup?

A.    host initiators
B.    LUNs
C.    qtrees
D.    volumes

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368845/html/GUID-BBD6165F-0D72-46A4-B669-3B6D14F2C7C0.html

NEW QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting a node that had a core dump. The HA partner took over and you successfully performed a giveback. You need to get access to the core files. Which two locations will give you access? (Choose two.)

A.    /mroot/etc/crash
B.    https://<cluster-mgmt-LIF>/spi/
C.    https://<cluster-mgmt-LIF>
D.    /mroot/etc/log

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196798/html/GUID-E593FD00-D062-4649-853A-4409E282FA12.html

NEW QUESTION 5
On a Windows 2012 Server, the FC load balance policy is configured using which two utilities? (Choose two.)

A.    NetApp OnCommand System Manager
B.    Data ONTAP DSM for Windows MPIO
C.    Windows MPIO
D.    Unified Host Utilities

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1656700/html/GUID-243B543E-070F-46E9-9636-6CF8B91EEB82.html

NEW QUESTION 6
You currently have the following configuration on your cluster:
cl01::>igroup show -¬instance
Vserver Name: svm1
Igroup Name: ig2
Protocol: mixed
OS Type: linux
Portset Binding Igroup: ¬-
Igroup UUID: 3fb136c7¬-cfd6¬-11df¬-a9ab¬-123478563412
Initiators: ¬-
What must you do to limit the LIFs that are used by an initiator to access a LUN?

A.    Create a portset.
B.    Create an additional igroup.
C.    Change the protocol to iSCSI.
D.    Change the OS type to windows_gpt.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368525/html/GUID-5CC27202-A43F-429F-AB13-C70E7CD58E09.html

NEW QUESTION 7
A customer has a 4-node cluster and wants to use iSCSI for LUN traffic. Which license needs to be installed on the nodes?

A.    iSCSI
B.    SnapRestore
C.    CIFS
D.    FC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button.
cl01::>lun mapping show ¬-
vserver svm1 ¬-
path /vol/svm1_vol1/lun1 ¬-
igroup svm1-ig1
Vserver Name: svm1
LUN path: /vol/svm1_vol1/lun1
Volume Name: svm1_vol1
Qtree Name: “”
LUN Name: lun1
Igroup Name: svm1-ig1
Igroup OS Type: windows
Igroup Protocol Type: iscsi
LUN ID: 3
Portset Binding Igroup: –
ALUA: true
Initiators: iqn.1991-
05.com.microsoft: host1
LUN Node: cl01-04
Reporting Nodes: cl01-01,
cl01-02, cl01-03, cl01-04
You have a 2-node cluster. You have added an HA pair with all flash drives for a high-performance database that is currently experiencing performance problems on SAS drives. The LUN shown in the exhibit is moved from cl01-01 to cl01-04 to address the problems. What is the next step in this scenario?

A.    Rescan the host to discover the new LUN location.
B.    Remove the old path entries from the host.
C.    Remove the previous owner and partner from the reporting nodes list.
D.    Unmap the LUN, then remap the LUN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.
cl01::>iscsi portal show
Logical Status CurrCurr
Vserver Interface TPGT
Admin/Oper IP Address Node
Port Enabled
———- ———- —- —
——– —————- —-
——- —- ——-
svm1 1-a 1035 up/up
192.168.1.66 cl01-01 e0a true
svm1 1-b 1051 up/up
192.168.1.67 cl01-01 e0b true
svm1 2-a 1046 up/down
192.168.1.68 cl01-02 e0a true
svm1 2-b 1052 up/up
192.168.1.69 cl01-02 e0b true
Referring to the exhibit, which action would you take to troubleshoot the iscsi-2-a interface?

A.    Verify that the iSCSI protocol is licensed for svm1.
B.    Cycle the upstream switch port down and back up again.
C.    Verify network connectivity between the host and LIF.
D.    Verify that the iSCSI protocol is started on svm1.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
cl01::> net int show -¬vserver
svm1
(network interface show)
Logical Status Network
Current Current Is
Vserver Interface Admin/Oper
Address/Mask Node Port Home
———– ——— ——
—- —————— —–
——- —— —-
svm1
fc_lif1 up/up
20:0b:00:a0:98:4e:ba:14
cl01-01 3a true
fc_lif2 up/up
20:0c:00:a0:98:4e:ba:14
cl01-02 3a true
lif1 up/up 172.16.21.31/24
cl01-01 a0a true
lif2 up/up 172.16.21.32/24
cl01-02 a0a true
4 entries were displayed.
cl01::>
Referring to the exhibit, a customer needs to move LIF “fc_lif1” to a new port. Which three actions must be performed to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A.    Remove LIF from the existing portset.
B.    Quiesce all hosts accessing LUNs over the LIF.
C.    Take the LIF offline.
D.    Update the switch zone to include the new WWPN.
E.    Move the LIF to a new home port using thenetwork interface modifycommand.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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NEW QUESTION 168
Which command can you enter to disable logging for VTY lines?

A.    no logging monitor
B.    no logging count
C.    no logging buffer
D.    no logging console
E.    no logging trap

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 169
Which feature monitors network events and takes automated action based on scripts configured by the administrator?

A.    NetFlow
B.    Performance Monitoring
C.    EPC
D.    EEM

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 170
Which IPv4 feature prevents multicast joins on a per-port basis?

A.    MLD filtering
B.    IGMP snooping
C.    IGMP filtering
D.    PIM snooping

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 171
Which two statements about PfR are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It manages traffic classes.
B.    It provides a narrower scope of route control than OER.
C.    It provides intelligent route control on a per-application basis.
D.    It supports split tunneling and spoke-to-spoke links.
E.    It always prefers the least cost path.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 172
Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?

A.    They determine whether a destination is reachable
B.    They are transmitted unreliably
C.    They are transmitted via broadcast
D.    They are sent in response to queries

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 173
Which routing protocol is not supported with VRF-lite?

A.    IS-IS
B.    OSPF
C.    EIGRP
D.    BGP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174
How can you reduce latency on a VoIP network?

A.    Implement a congestion-avoidance algorithm.
B.    Implement low latency queuing.
C.    Configure an SLA to collect information on packet loss.
D.    Set the IP SLA timeout to 1000 milliseconds.
E.    Implement fast retransmission.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 175
Which two statements about the host address 172.150.100.10/18 are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The network address is 172.150.0.0
B.    The network address is 172.150.64.0
C.    The network address is 172.150.100.0
D.    The broadcast address is 172.150.127.255
E.    The broadcast address is 172.150.255.255
F.    The broadcast address is 172.150.100.255

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
Interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.12.1  255.255.255.224

Router eigrp 100
passive-interface FastEthernet0/0
network 192.168.12.0
no auto-summary

A.    The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over all EIGRP interfaces except F0/0
B.    The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over interface F0/0
C.    The router will advertise the 192.168.12.0/27 network
D.    The router will manuallu summarize the 192.168.12.0/27 network
E.    Auto-summarization will be enabled on the F0/0 interface

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 177
Which two statements about IPv6 PIM are true? (Choose two.)

A.    PIM-SM and PIM-SSM can be configured in the same network
B.    PIM-SM bases its RPF checks on the unicast routing table
C.    It supports both sparse mode and dense mode
D.    It supports both Auto-RP and BSR
E.    It works in conjunction with unicast routing protocols to send and receive multicast updates

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 178
Wht is the EUI 64-bit address corresponding to MAC address 0032F4C57781?

A.    FFFE0032F4C57781
B.    0032F4FFFEC57781
C.    0032F4C57781FFFE
D.    C57781FFFE0032F4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 179
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NEW QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. You need to ensure that you can start VM1 from the network. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Create a generation 2 virtual machine.
B.    Create a generation 1 virtual machine and run the Enable-NetAdapterPackageDirect cmdlet.
C.    Create a generation 1 virtual machine that has a legacy network adapter.
D.    Create a generation 1 virtual machine and configure a single root I/O virtualization (SRV-IO) interface for the network adapter.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a dynamically expanding virtual hard disk (VHD) file that is 900 GB The VHD contains 400 GB of free space. You need to reduce the amount of disk space used by the VHD. What should you run?

A.    the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B.    the Diskpart command
C.    the Set-VHD cmdlet
D.    the Set-VM cmdlet
E.    the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F.    the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet
G.    the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H.    the Optimize-VHD cmdlet

Answer: H

NEW QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. You install Windows Server 2016 on 10 virtual machines. You need to deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to the virtual machines. Solution: You use Windows PowefShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) to create a default configuration and then you apply the configuration the virtual machines. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You have a Nano Server named Nano1. Which cmdlet should you use to identify whether the DNS Server role is installed on Nano1?

A.    Find-NanoServerPackage
B.    Get-Package
C.    Find-Package
D.    Get-WindowsOptionalFeature

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result. these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Contoso com has the following configuration:

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration. You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment. Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You are configuring a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster in a workgroup. Before installing one of the nodes, you run the ipconfig /all command and receive the following output:

You need lo ensure that Server 1 can be added as a node in the cluster. What should you do1?

A.    Assign a static IP address
B.    Change the Node Type to Broadcast
C.    Configure a DNS suffix
D.    Enable NetBIOS over TCP/IP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table:

All of the virtual switches are of the external type. You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to disconnect from the network. Solution: You implement a Hyper-V Replica between Host2 and Host4. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to create a Network load Balancing (NLB) cluster that will contain both servers. You need to configure the network cards on the servers for the planned NLB configuration. Solution: You configure the network cards to be on the same subnet and lo have dynamic IP addresses. You configure the cluster to use multicast. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to configure Server1 as a multitenant RAS Gateway. What should you install on Server1?

A.    the Network Policy and Access Services server role
B.    the Remote Access server rote
C.    the Data Center Bridging feature
D.    the Network Controller server role

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result. these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Contoso com has the following configuration:

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration. You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment. Solution: You raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2. Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You are creating new sales agreements for a new customer. The commitment type is configured to be product quantity commitment. Which two settings are available for this type of agreement and unavailable for other types of agreements? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Amount
B.    Unit
C.    Discount
D.    Quantity

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 2
You are the purchasing agent for your company. You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list. Which type of line item should you create?

A.    Category
B.    Open
C.    Solicitation
D.    Item

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Your company receives a shipment of not-stocked items from your supplier. You need to receive the items into inventory. What should you do?

A.    Register the item and create a product receipt.
B.    Create a stock movement journal for the item.
C.    Register the item and create an item arrival journal.
D.    Create a receipts list form the purchase order.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
You are the accounts receivable manager. You need to match customer invoices to payments that will be recorded by searching invoice lines that meet selected criteria. Which search option should you user?

A.    Bridging method
B.    Settlements
C.    Create lines
D.    Payment proposal

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
You work for an apparel company. You are creating a new category hierarchy. How many levels can be added to the category hierarchy?

A.    two
B.    ten
C.    unlimited
D.    one

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You are the payroll manager for your company. You are responsible for paying commission to sales personal. One rule for the company is to pay a higher commission rate for new customers. You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade to calculate these amounts. What should you set up in Microsoft Dynamics AX to capture the sales from those customers defined as new?

A.    Commission posting
B.    Commission calculation
C.    Customer group for commissions
D.    Sales group

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
You are the accounts payable payment clerk at your company. While you are printing check, one of the checks gets jammed in the printer and must be reprinted. Which feature should you use to cancel the damaged check?

A.    Settle transactions
B.    Void the payment
C.    Payment reversal
D.    Undo settlement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
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NEW QUESTION 1
You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget. What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

A.    enter recurrence
B.    transfer balances
C.    allocate across periods
D.    allocate across dimensions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
A new customer requests to pay their bills in installments, and your company agrees to this request. You need to set up the customer record so that the payments can be processed correctly. What should be added to the customer record?

A.    payment schedule
B.    allocation rule
C.    terms of payment
D.    method of payment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
You are creating a parent budget plan that will consist of budget amounts for all departments. You then need to create associate budget plans and link them to the parent budget. Before you can create the associate budget plans, which two steps must be complete? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    The budget plan priority must be selected on the budget plan creation.
B.    The budget organization hierarchy must have at least two levels.
C.    The budget planning process that you select must be set up for associated budget plans.
D.    The individual preparing the budget plan needs appropriate permissions to create an associate budget plan.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
You are an accounts receivable manager. Your company levies a fine with a high-interest premium on a customer’s overdue amount. The customer disputes this fine and succeeds. You need to waive the fine in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials. What should you do?

A.    Print/Post Interest notes.
B.    Create an interest adjustment.
C.    Print/Post Collection letter notes.
D.    Generate a customer account statement.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules. When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?

A.    the dimensions on the transfer
B.    the amount of the transfer
C.    the date of the transfer
D.    the employee requesting the transfer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Your bank requires that you send prenotes (zero dollar transactions) to the bank to verify data. You need to set up the cash and back management module to allow the creation of prenotes. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Set “Allow copies of payments” in the Cash and bank management parameters to Yes.
B.    Set “Activate prenotes” in the Bank accounts to Yes.
C.    Set “Allow prenote creation on inactive bank accounts” in the Cash and bank management parameters to Yes.
D.    Set “Prenotes” required in the Bank accounts to Yes.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 7
You are the accounts payable manager in a European subsidiary of your company. Your company purchases goods from a vendor that is not located in Europe. The vendor did not charge sales tax on the invoice but the customs office sends an invoice because the goods crossed the border and the company declared them at customs.

A.    Report sales tax on the imported goods.
B.    Report withholding sales tax on the imported goods.
C.    Report conditional sales tax on the imported goods.
D.    Report sales tax exemption on the imported goods.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
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NEW QUESTION 240
An administrator has a virtual machine (VM) that uses a shared USB device. Which option will allow the VM to utilize vMotion while retaining the maximum possible functionality?

A.    Disable the USB device from the VM.
B.    Configure the VM to support vMotion while the device is connected.
C.    Enable migration support for the individual USB device.
D.    Remove the device from the VM.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 241
An administrator is configuring an identity source for Single Sign-On. The administrator will use the machine that Single Sign-On is running on, but does not want all users on the machine to be visibile to SSO. Which Identity Source meets this requirement?

A.    Active Directory (Integrated Windows Authentication)
B.    Active Directory as an LDAP Service
C.    OpenLDAP
D.    LocalOS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 242
Which two conditions would prevent an administrator from upgrading an existing vCenter Appliance to vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.)

A.    The appliance has been configured to use an external Single Sign-On server.
B.    The administrator did not export the appliance configuration.
C.    The administrator is using an appliance with an embedded Platform Services Controller.
D.    The ESXi Host that the appliance will run on has not been placed into Maintenance Mode.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 243
An administrator has configured a cluster with the Host Failures Cluster Tolerates admission control policy, as shown in the Exhibit:

Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The number of slots per cluster node is four.
B.    The cluster can sustain loss of only one node.
C.    The number of slots per cluster node is three.
D.    The cluster can sustain the loss of two nodes.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 244
An administrator is creating a new Platform Service Controller Password Policy with the following requirements:
– Minimum length: Minimum of 8 characters
– Restrict use: 6
– Character requirements: At least one upper-case letter, one number, and one special character
– Identical adjacent characters: 0
When trying to assign the password “P@$$w0rd”, the administrator receives an error that the password does not meet the Password Policy requirements. Which part of the Password Policy does this password violate?

A.    Minimum length
B.    Restrict use
C.    Character requirements
D.    Identical adjacent characters

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 245
Which two statements are true regarding upgrading from a Distributed vCenter Server 5.x to vCenter Server 6.x? (Choose two.)

A.    vCenter Single Sign-on becomes part of the Platform Services Controller.
B.    vCenter Inventory Service becomes part of the Platform Services Controller.
C.    The vCenter Server service is not migrated during the upgrade process.
D.    The vSphere License Service is migrated to the new vCenter Server 6.x instance.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 246
An administrator wants to clone the configuration of an existing ESXi 6.x host to a new group of hosts, but does not want to clone storage specific settings. Which action would accomplish this?

A.    Uncheck sub-profile
B.    Remove sub-profile
C.    Revert profile
D.    Disable VM Storage Profile

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 247
Which two statements are true regarding upgrading ESXi 6.x hosts using a USB flash drive? (Choose two.)

A.    The ks.cfg file must be available to the ESXi 6.x host during bootup on a TFTP server.
B.    The USB flash drive must be formatted using Fat32.
C.    A partition table must be manually created on the USB flash device.
D.    The USB flash drive must be mounted from a Windows device with sysconfig installed.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 248
An administrator is configuring resource pools for a vSphere 6.x cluster. The cluster has these characteristics:
– Five ESXi 6.x hosts
– Six cores per host
– 70 virtual machines with 1 vCPU each
The administrator configures three resource pools and places the virtual machines into the pools, as follows:
– Production pool – High Share value with 40 virtual machines
– Infrastructure pool – Medium Share value with 20 virtual machines
– Development pool – Low Share value with 10 virtual machines
Given this configuration, what is the expected performance for each group of virtual machines during contention?

A.    Virtual machines in the Production pool will perform two times as well as those in the Infrastructure pool.
B.    Virtual machines in the Infrastructure pool will perform four times as well as those in the Development pool.
C.    Virtual machines in all resource pools will perform equally.
D.    Virtual machines in the Development pool will perform two times as well as those in the Infrastructure pool.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 249
When operating with Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) and Distributed Power Management (DPM), what two statements explain the impact of disabling vSphere High Availability admission control? (Choose two.)

A.    VMware DPM does not place hosts in standby mode if doing so would violate failover requirements.
B.    DRS does not evacuate virtual machines from a host for the purpose of placing it in maintenance or standby modes if placing the host in this state would violate failover requirements.
C.    DRS will evacuate virtual machines from hosts and places hosts in maintenance or standby modes regardless of the impact this might have on failover requirements.
D.    VMware DPM will place hosts in standby mode even if doing so violates failover requirements.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 250
An administrator is configuring Storage I/O Control. After enabling, the administrator notices high device latency and poor storage performance. Which two actions would likely reduce latency and improve functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the congestion threshold to 15ms
B.    Set the congestion threshold value to 5ms
C.    Ensure that each datastore has independent spindles
D.    Ensure that each datastore uses shared spindles

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 251
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NEW QUESTION 288
An engineer must ensure that all client operating systems have the AnyConnect Agent for an upcoming posture implementation. Which two versions of OS does the AnyConnect posture agent support? (Choose two.)

A.    Google Android
B.    Ubuntu
C.    Apple Mac OS X
D.    Microsoft Windows
E.    Red Hat Enterprise Linux

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 289
Which command would be used in order to maintain a single open connection between a network access device and a tacacs server?

A.    tacacs-server host timeout
B.    tacacs-server host single-connection
C.    tacacs-server host <ip address>
D.    tacacs-server host <ip address> single-connection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 290
Refer to the exhibit. Which authentication method is being used?
Evaluating Identity Policy
15006  Matched Default Rule
15013  Selected Identity Store – LDAP_TESTE
22043  Current Identity Store does not support the authentication method; Skipping it

A.    PEAP-MSCHAP
B.    EAP-GTC
C.    EAP-TLS
D.    PEAP-TLS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 291
A security engineer has a new TrustSec project and must create a few static security group tag classifications as a proof of concept. Which two classifications can the tags be mapped to? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN
B.    user ID
C.    interface
D.    switch ID
E.    MAC address

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 292
……

NEW QUESTION 293
Which CoA type does a Cisco ISE PSN send to a network access device when a NAG agent reports the OS patch status of a noncompliant endpoint?

A.    CoA-Terminate
B.    CoA-PortBounce
C.    CoA-Reauth
D.    CoA-Remediate

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 294
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NEW QUESTION 51
Hotspot Question
Wide World Importers has implemented Skype for Business Server 2015. They have their headquarters in New York and a sales office in Los Angeles.
– All executive staff are based out of the New York office. Each member uses multiple mobile devices as well as a laptop computer.
– All sales staff are based out of the Los Angeles office.
– All users use Exchange Online for email.
Users in Los Angeles often report that it can take a while before they can search for the new staff within their Skype for Business clients. Executives must be able to see previous instant messaging conversations across all of their devices. You need to configure a separate client policy for each location that will enable the functionality required by the local users. In the table below, identify the client policy parameter that will be used to configure the client policy in each location. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct answer is worth one point.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 52
You support a customer whose network environment includes Skype for Business Server 2015 deployed in a datacenter that has two pools, named PoolA and PoolB. Both PoolA and PoolB have Skype for Business Server 2015 installed. You use the Skype for Business Management Shell for all administrative actions. You run the Invoke-CsPoolFailover PowerShell cmdlet and you receive the following message:
Invoke-CsPoolFailOver: This Front-end pool “poolA.contoso.com” is specified in topology as the next hop for the Edge server. Failing over this pool may cause External access/Federation/Split-domain/XMPP features to stop working. Please use Topology Builder to change the Edge internal next hop setting to point to a different Front-end pool, before you proceed. You need to fail over PoolA only. Which Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet or cmdlets should you run?

A.    Get-CsDatabaseMirrorState and Itwoke-CSManagementServerFailover
B.    Set-CsEdgeServer
C.    Set-CsAccessEdgeConfiguration
D.    Set- CsAVEdgcConfiguration

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 53
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NEW QUESTION 54
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that consists of two sites. The sites are located in New York and Rome. Each nterprtse V ofce deployed and contains separate dial plans and voice policies. You plan to deploy dial-in conferencing to both sites. In each site, you create a dedicated conferencing policy. You assign the respective users in each site. You create a dial-in conferencing access number. When you attempt to assign a region to the number, you discover that the regions are unavailable. You need to ensure that you can add a region to the dial-in conferencing access number. What should you modify?

A.    the meeting configuration settings
B.    the dial plans
C.    the conferencing policies
D.    the voice policies

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 55
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NEW QUESTION 60
Contoso is evaluating the implementation of push notifications for Windows Phone devices. You need to identify which tasks must be performed to enable the push notifications. Which three Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.(Choose three.)

A.    New-CsAllowedDomain
B.    Set-CsPublicProvider
C.    New-CsHostingProvider
D.    Set-CsPushNotificationConfiguration
E.    Enable-CsPublicProvider

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh690047.aspx

NEW QUESTION 61
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NEW QUESTION 64
You deploy a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to deploy a Persistent Chat pool. The solution must use the least amount of servers. On which server should you install the Persistent Chat Server role?

A.    Server1
B.    Server2
C.    Server3
D.    Server4
E.    a new server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 65
You have two Skype for Business Server 2015 Front End servers. You plan to install a third Front End server. User1 must be able to install a new Skype for Business Server 2015 Front. You need to delegate the minimum level of Skype for Business Server permissions to User1. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)

A.    From Skype for Business Management Shell, run the following cmdlet:
Grant- CsSetupPermission -ComputerOU “ou = CsServers,dc = litwareinc,dc=com”
B.    Assign User1 the CsServerAdministrator role
C.    Grant User1 membership to the RTCUniversalServerAdmins group
D.    Grant User1 membership to the RTCUniversalUserAdmins group
E.    Assign User1 the CsLocationAdministrator role
F.    Assign User1 the CsLocationAdministrator role
G.    From Skype for Business Management Shell, run the following cmdlet:
Update- CsAdminRole

Answer: AF

NEW QUESTION 66
You support Skype for Business Server 2015 Enterprise servers in your customer’s organization. You configure dial-in conferencing Users are dispersed in several locations. All client computers run Windows 10. Users report that they cannot use dial-in conferencing for their conferences. You run the Gct-CsDialPlan Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit. Click the Exhibit button.

You need to ensure that users can join conferences by using dial in conferencing. What should you do?

A.    Associate a trunk route with a dial-in conferencing region.
B.    ‘Create a user dial plan and associate the user dial plan with a dial-in conferencing access number.
C.    Associate a public switched telephone network (PSTN) usage record with a dial-in conferencing region.
D.    Associate a dial-in conferencing access number with a dial-in conferencing region.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 67
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NEW QUESTION 1
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which phones must be associated to the RmCm application user account?

A.    all phones
B.    none, because that user account is not used for phone association
C.    only agent phones that are used with the Cisco Finesse agent desktop
D.    only Cisco Finesse IPPA phones

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which two Cisco Unified CCX steps should you use if you want to send an HTTP message? (Choose two.)

A.    Write Document
B.    Place Call
C.    Send HTTP Response
D.    Cache Document
E.    Create URL Document

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 4
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?

A.    the system page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
B.    Cisco Desktop Administration
C.    Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Service ability
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
Which tab on the Cisco Finesse agent desktop hosts the gadget for agents to accept or initiate a call?

A.    The My Statistics tab hosts the gadget.
B.    The Home tab hosts the gadget.
C.    The Manage Customer tab hosts the gadget.
D.    The gadget to initiate or accept a call is common and is not tied to a specific tab.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which three operations can be performed within the Cisco Finesse IP Phone Age (IPPA)? (Choose three.)

A.    A supervisor can use Finesse IPPA to act as an agent and accept calls.
B.    An agent can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
C.    A supervisor can sign in to Finesse IPPA and initiate call recording.
D.    An agent using Finesse IPPA can enter Not Ready, Sign-out, and Wrap-up reasons.
E.    Agents can log in to Finesse IPPA with Cisco Unified CCX deployed using a Standard license.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 7
Which action enables a contact center supervisor to access and monitor live data reports for multiple teams?

A.    Take no action, because a supervisor cannot monitor more than one team.
B.    Assign the supervisor as primary superior for one of the teams and as secondary supervisor for other relevant teams.
C.    Assign the supervisor as primary supervisor for all the relevant teams.
D.    Add the supervisor as a member of all the relevant teams.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
A customer purchases 200 Cisco Unified Center Express Premium agent seats In order to run a 30-port outbound IVR campaign, which two addition items must the customer purchase?

A.    a router
B.    a gateway
C.    30 outbound IVR ports
D.    30 agent seats
E.    15 agent seats

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 9
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