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[24/Jan/2019 Updated] 312-50v10 Exam Questions with Free PDF and VCE Download From PassLeader

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NEW QUESTION 701
A company’s security policy states that all Web browsers must automatically delete their HTTP browser cookies upon terminating. What sort of security breach is this policy attempting to mitigate?

A.    Attempts by attackers to access the user and password information stored in the company’s SQL database.
B.    Attempts by attackers to access Web sites that trust the Web browser user by stealing the user’s authentication credentials.
C.    Attempts by attackers to access password stored on the user’s computer without the user’s knowledge.
D.    Attempts by attackers to determine the user’s Web browser usage patterns, including when sites were visited and for how long.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 702
To maintain compliance with regulatory requirements, a security audit of the systems on a network must be performed to determine their compliance with security policies. Which one of the following tools would most likely be used in such an audit?

A.    Protocol analyzer
B.    Intrusion Detection System
C.    Port scanner
D.    Vulnerability scanner

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 703
You are tasked to perform a penetration test. While you are performing information gathering, you find an employee list in Google. You find the receptionist’s email, and you send her an email changing the source email to her boss’s email (boss@company). In this email, you ask for a pdf with information. She reads your email and sends back a pdf with links. You exchange the pdf links with your malicious links (these links contain malware) and send back the modified pdf, saying that the links don’t work. She reads your email, opens the links, and her machine gets infected. You now have access to the company network. What testing method did you use?

A.    Social engineering
B.    Piggybacking
C.    Tailgating
D.    Eavesdropping

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 704
Your team has won a contract to infiltrate an organization. The company wants to have the attack be as realistic as possible; therefore, they did not provide any information besides the company name. What should be the first step in security testing the client?

A.    Reconnaissance
B.    Escalation
C.    Scanning
D.    Enumeration

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 705
A medium-sized healthcare IT business decides to implement a risk management strategy. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?

A.    Accept
B.    Delegate
C.    Mitigate
D.    Avoid

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 706
OpenSSL on Linux servers includes a command line tool for testing TLS. What is the name of the tool and the correct syntax to connect to a web server?

A.    openssl s_client -site www.website.com:443
B.    openssl_client -site www.website.com:443
C.    openssl_client -connect www.website.com:443
D.    openssl s_client -connect www.website.com:443

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 707
Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A.    Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program.
B.    Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
C.    Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
D.    Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 708
John is an incident handler at a financial institution. His steps in a recent incident are not up to the standards of the company. John frequently forgets some steps and procedures while handling responses as they are very stressful to perform. Which of the following actions should John take to overcome this problem with the least administrative effort?

A.    Increase his technical skills.
B.    Read the incident manual every time it occurs.
C.    Select someone else to check the procedures.
D.    Create an incident checklist.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 709
Which of the following is the least-likely physical characteristic to be used in biometric control that supports a large company?

A.    Voice
B.    Fingerprints
C.    Iris patterns
D.    Height and Weight

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 710
While using your bank’s online servicing you notice the following string in the URL bar:
http://www.MyPersonalBank.com/account?id=368940911028389&Damount=10980&Camount=21″
You observe that if you modify the Damount & Camount values and submit the request, that data on the web page reflects the changes. Which type of vulnerability is present on this site?

A.    Cookie Tampering
B.    SQL Injection
C.    Web Parameter Tampering
D.    XSS Reflection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 711
It is an entity or event with the potential to adversely impact a system through unauthorized acces, destruction, disclosure, denial of service or modification of data. Which of the following terms best matches the definition?

A.    Attack
B.    Vulnerability
C.    Threat
D.    Risk

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 712
Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) flaws in software applications?

A.    Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings.
B.    Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data.
C.    Validate and escape all information sent to a server.
D.    Verify acces right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 713
Gavin owns a white-hat firm and is performing a website security audit for one of his clients. He begins by running a scan which looks for common misconfigurations and outdated software versions. Which of the following tools is he most likely using?

A.    Armitage
B.    Nikto
C.    Metasploit
D.    Nmap

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 714
Matthew, a black hat, has managed to open a meterpreter session to one of the kiosk machines in Evil Corp’s lobby. He checks his current SID, which is S-1-5-21-1223352397-1872883824-861252104-501. What needs to happen before Matthew has full administrator access?

A.    He needs to gain physical access.
B.    He must perform privilege escalation.
C.    He already has admin privileges, as shown by the “501” at the end of the SID.
D.    He needs to disable antivirus protection.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 715
Elliot is in the process of exploiting a web application that uses SQL as a back-end database. He is determined that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection and has introduced conditional timing delays into injected queries to determine whether they are successful. What type of SQL injection is Elliot most likely performing?

A.    NoSQL injection
B.    Blind SQL injection
C.    Union-based SQL injection
D.    Error-based SQL injection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 716
You have successfully logged on a Linux system. You want to now cover your track. Your login attempt may be logged on several files located in /var/log. Which file does NOT belong to the list?

A.    wtmp
B.    user.log
C.    btmp
D.    auth.log

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 717
When you return to your desk after a lunch break, you notice a strange email in your inbox. The sender is someone you did business with recently, but the subject line has strange characters in it. What should you do?

A.    Forward the message to your company’s security response team and permanently delete the message from your computer.
B.    Reply to the sender and ask them for more information about the message contents.
C.    Delete the email and pretend nothing happened.
D.    Forward the message to your supervisor and ask for her opinion on how to handle the situation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 718
The “gray box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?

A.    Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
B.    The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C.    The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
D.    Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 719
Log monitoring tools performing behavioral analysis have alerted several suspicious logins on a Linux server occuring during non-business hours. After further examination of all login activities, it is notices that none of the logins have occurred during typical work hours. A Linux administrator who is investigating this problem realized the system time on the Linux server is wrong by more than twelve hours. What protocol used on Linux serves to synchronize the time has stopped working?

A.    NTP
B.    TimeKeeper
C.    OSPF
D.    PPP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 720
The “black box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?

A.    Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
B.    The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
C.    The internal operation of a system is only partly accessible to the tester.
D.    Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 721
Which of the following can the administrator do to verify that a tape backup can be recovered in its entirety?

A.    Read the first 512 bytes of the tape.
B.    Perform a full restore.
C.    Read the last 512 bytes of the tape.
D.    Restore a random file.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 722
An LDAP directory can be used to store information similar to a SQL database. LDAP uses a ____ database structure instead of SQL’s ____ structure. Because of this, LDAP has difficulty representing many-to-one relationships.

A.    Strict, Abstract
B.    Simple, Complex
C.    Relational, Hierarchical
D.    Hierarchical, Relational

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 723
What is the purpose of DNS AAAA record?

A.    Address prefix record
B.    Address database record
C.    Authorization, Authentication and Auditing record
D.    IPv6 address resolution record

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 724
Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to Intrusion Detection Systems?

A.    Intrusion Detection Systems can easily distinguish a malicious payload in an encrypted traffic.
B.    Intrusion Detection Systems can examine the contents of the data in context of the network protocol.
C.    Intrusion Detection Systems can be configured to distinguish specific content in network packets.
D.    Intrusion Detection Systems require constant update of the signature library.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 725
During an Xmas scan, what indicates a port is closed?

A.    RST
B.    SYN
C.    ACK
D.    No return response

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 726
Which command can be used to show the current TCP/IP connections?

A.    Netsh
B.    Net use connection
C.    Netstat
D.    Net use

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 727
You are performing information gathering for an important penetration test. You have found pdf, doc, and images in your objective. You decide to extract metadata from these files and analyze it. What tool will help you with the task?

A.    Armitage
B.    Dmitry
C.    Metagoofil
D.    CDPSnarf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 728
You have several plain-text firewall logs that you must review to evaluate network traffic. You know that in order to do fast, efficient searches of the logs you must use regular expressions. Which command-line utility are you most likely to use?

A.    Relational Database
B.    MS Excel
C.    Notepad
D.    Grep

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 729
This phase will increase the odds of success in later phases of the penetration test. It is also the very first step in Information Gathering and it will tell you the “landscape” looks like. What is the most important phase of ethical hacking in which you need to spend a considerable amount of time?

A.    network mapping
B.    footprinting
C.    escalating privileges
D.    gaining access

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 730
When you are collecting information to perform a data analysis, Google commands are very useful to find sensitive information and files. These files may contain information about passwords, system functions, or documentation. What command will help you to search files using Google as a search engine?

A.    site:target.com filetype:xls username password email
B.    domain:target.com archieve:xls username password email
C.    inurl:target.com filename:xls username password email
D.    site:target.com file:xls username password email

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 731
……


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NEW QUESTION 101
A company contracted a firm specializing in penetration testing to assess the security of a core business application. The company provided the firm with a copy of the Java bytecode. Which of the following steps must the firm take before it can run a static code analyzer?

A.    Run the application through a dynamic code analyzer.
B.    Employ a fuzzing utility.
C.    Decompile the application.
D.    Check memory allocations.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 102
A financial institution is asking a penetration tester to determine if collusion capabilities to produce wire fraud are present. Which of the following threat actors should the penetration tester portray during the assessment?

A.    Insider threat
B.    Nation state
C.    Script kiddie
D.    Cybercrime organization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 103
Which of the following has a direct and significant impact on the budget of the security assessment?

A.    Scoping
B.    Scheduling
C.    Compliance requirement
D.    Target risk

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 104
After performing a security assessment for a firm, the client was found to have been billed for the time the client’s test environment was unavailable. The Client claims to have been billed unfairly. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be able to provide guidance in such a situation?

A.    SOW
B.    NDA
C.    EULA
D.    BRA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 105
During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full administrator privileges on a number of target systems efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password have been unsuccessful. Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts?

A.    Operating system Windows 7
Open ports: 23, 161
B.    Operating system Windows Server 2016
Open ports: 53, 5900
C.    Operating system Windows 8 1
Open ports: 445, 3389
D.    Operating system Windows 8
Open ports: 514, 3389

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106
A client requests that a penetration tester emulate a help desk technician who was recently laid off. Which of the following BEST describes the abilities of the threat actor?

A.    Advanced persistent threat
B.    Script kiddie
C.    Hacktivist
D.    Organized crime

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 107
Which of the following types of physical security attacks does …?

A.    Lock picking
B.    Impersonation
C.    Shoulder surfing
D.    Tailgating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 108
Which of the following reasons does penetration tester needs to have a customer’s point-of-contact information available at all time? (Choose three.)

A.    To report indicators of compromise
B.    To report findings that cannot be exploited
C.    To report critical findings
D.    To report the latest published exploits
E.    To update payment information
F.    To report a server that becomes unresponsive
G.    To update the statement of work
H.    To report a cracked password

Answer: ACF

NEW QUESTION 109
While engaging clients for a penetration test from highly regulated industries, which of the following is usually the MOST important to the clients from a business perspective?

A.    Letter of engagement and attestation of findings
B.    NDA and MSA
C.    SOW and final report
D.    Risk summary and executive summary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 110
An attacker uses SET to make a copy of a company’s cloud-hosted web mail portal and sends an email to obtain the CEO’s login credentials. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?

A.    Elicitation attack
B.    Impersonation attack
C.    Spear phishing attack
D.    Drive-by download attack

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 111
During an internal penetration test, several multicast and broadcast name resolution requests are observed traversing the network. Which of the following tools could be used to impersonate network resources and collect authentication requests?

A.    Ettercap
B.    Tcpdump
C.    Responder
D.    Medusa

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 112
In a physical penetration testing scenario, the penetration tester obtains physical access to a laptop following as a potential NEXT step to extract credentials from the device?

A.    Brute force the user’s password.
B.    Perform an ARP spoofing attack.
C.    Leverage the BeEF framework to capture credentials.
D.    Conduct LLMNR/NETBIOS-ns poisoning.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 113
A penetration tester is utilizing social media to gather information about employees at a company. The tester has created a list of popular words used in employee profiles. For which of the following types of attack would this information be used?

A.    Exploit chaining
B.    Session hijacking
C.    Dictionary
D.    Karma

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 114
A tester has determined that null sessions are enabled on a domain controller. Which of the following attacks can be performed to leverage this vulnerability?

A.    RID cycling to enumerate users and groups.
B.    Pass the hash to relay credentials.
C.    Password brute forcing to log into the host.
D.    Session hijacking to impersonate a system account.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 115
Joe, a penetration tester, is asked to assess a company’s physical security by gaining access to its corporate office. Joe is looking for a method that will enable him to enter the building during business hours or when there are no employee on-site. Which of the following would be MOST effective in accomplishing this?

A.    Badge cloning
B.    Lock picking
C.    Tailgating
D.    Piggybacking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 116
A client has voiced concern about the number of companies being branched by remote attackers, who are looking for trade secrets. Which of following BEST describes the types of adversaries this would identify?

A.    Script kiddies
B.    APT actors
C.    Insider threats
D.    Hacktrvist groups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 117
Which of the following CPU register does the penetration tester need to overwrite in order to exploit a simple butter overflow?

A.    Stack pointer register
B.    Index pointer register
C.    Stack base pointer
D.    Destination index register

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 118
After a recent penetration test, a company has a finding regarding the use of dictionary and seasonal passwords by its employees. Which of the following is the BEST control to remediate the use of common dictionary terms?

A.    Expand the password length from seven to 14 characters
B.    Implement password history restrictions
C.    Configure password filters
D.    Disable the accounts after five incorrect attempts
E.    Decrease the password expiration window

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119
A penetration tester locates a few unquoted service paths during an engagement. Which of the following can the tester attempt to do with these?

A.    Attempt to crack the service account passwords.
B.    Attempt DLL hijacking attacks.
C.    Attempt to locate weak file and folder permissions.
D.    Attempt privilege escalation attacks.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120
A penetration tester is preparing to conduct API testing. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in preparing for this engagement?

A.    Nikto
B.    WAR
C.    W3AF
D.    Swagger

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 121
Drag and Drop
……


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NEW QUESTION 270
vSphere 6.5 DRS is now Network-Aware. Based on network utilization, when will DRS balance VMs?

A.    DRS will balance VMs when a network resource pool is configured for VMs.
B.    DRS will balance VMs when Network I/O Control is enabled.
C.    DRS will place VMs on initial boot for hosts that have network utilization lower than the threshold.
D.    DRS will vMotion VMs when network utilization is higher than the threshold on a particular host.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 271
What are two requirements in order to restore a Resource Pool Tree from a snapshot? (Choose two.)

A.    A restore can only be performed on the same cluster the snapshot was taken from.
B.    vSphere DRS must be turned on.
C.    vSphere DRS must be turned off.
D.    A restore can only be performed on a vSphere DRS cluster within the original vCenter Server.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 272
What new feature is introduced in NFS 4.1 on ESXi 6.5?

A.    Storage DRS
B.    KRB5i
C.    IPv6
D.    AUTH_SYS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 273
How can a vSphere administrator ensure that a set of virtual machines run on different hosts in a DRS cluster?

A.    Add the VMs to a vApp.
B.    Use a VM-Host affinity rule.
C.    Place the VMs in different folders.
D.    Use a VM-VM affinity rule.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 274
What availability mode does vCenter HA provide?

A.    Active-Standby
B.    Load-balanced
C.    Active-Passive
D.    Active-Active

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 275
To prevent possible failures or issues during a vSphere upgrade, which component should be upgraded first?

A.    virtual machines
B.    datastores
C.    ESXi Hosts
D.    vCenter Server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 276
A vSphere Administrator has VM Component Protection (VMCP) enabled, but the VM was not restarted when one of the VMFS datastores experienced an All Paths Down (APD) failure. What two scenarios would explain why the virtual machine was not restarted? (Choose two.)

A.    Insufficient Capacity is available on the failover ESXi hosts.
B.    VM Monitoring is required in order for VMCP to failover during an APD event.
C.    VMware Tools is not installed on the guest operating system for the VM.
D.    The APD failure was corrected before the VM could be restarted.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 277
What is the default space threshold for vSphere Storage DRS?

A.    90%
B.    70%
C.    95%
D.    80%

Answer: D
Explanation:
Load balancing based on Space and IO: Storage DRS dynamically balance the Storage DRS cluster imbalance based on Space and IO threshold set. Default space threshold per datastore is 80% and default IO latency threshold is 15ms.
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2149938

NEW QUESTION 278
Restoration of the vCenter Server Appliance is accomplished using which interface?

A.    vSphere Client
B.    vCenter Server ApplianceGUI Installer
C.    vSphere Web Client
D.    vCenter Server ApplianceMenagement Interface

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 279
What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the maximum reset window for a virtual machine is 24 hours?

A.    Normal
B.    Low
C.    High
D.    Medium

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2014/03/vsphere-ha-vm-monitoring-back-basics.html

NEW QUESTION 280
Group A has permission to download files in Content Library. Group B does not have permission to download files in Content Library. If a user is a member of both groups, what will be the result?

A.    The user can access Content Library.
B.    The user cannot download file from Content Library.
C.    The user cannot access Content Library.
D.    The user can download file from Content Library.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Permission inheritance (not in any order):
* Permissions are additive if not in conflict so user gets permissions from both groups.
* Permissions at lower level in hierarchy has precedence.
* Permissions on user has precedence over Group
* Deny permissions has precedence over Allow.
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.bsa.doc_40/vc_admin_guide/managing_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_multiple_permission_settings.html

NEW QUESTION 281
Which is the correct sequence to upgrade a vSphere infrastructure?

A.    vCenter Server > ESXi host > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
B.    vCenter Server > ESXi host > VM compatibility > VMware Tools
C.    ESXi host > vCenter Server > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
D.    ESXi host > vCenter Server > VM compatibility > VMware Tools

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 282
When attempting to migrate a virtual machine to another host in the same cluster, the error message “Select a valid compute resource” returns. What could cause this error?

A.    VMware Tools is not installed.
B.    Both hosts are not sharing the same datastore.
C.    Virtual machine has an ISO attached.
D.    Both hosts run different versions of ESXi.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 283
Which two statements are true for a vCenterServer user account that is used for vSphere Data Protection (VDP)? (Choose two.)

A.    The password for the user account cannot contain spaces.
B.    The user account should be created in the Single Sign-On domain.
C.    The user account must be assigned with Administrator role.
D.    The user account cannot inherit required permissions from a group role.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
For the vCenter server account used for vSphere data protection, the user account must have administrator role and the password for the user account should not contain spaces.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/vmware-data-protection-administration-guide-61.pdf

NEW QUESTION 284
Which two tasks should a vSphere administrator perform if the vmkernel.log reports VMFS metadata errors? (Choose two.)

A.    reformat the datastore
B.    ignore the messages
C.    contact VMware technical support
D.    check the device with VOMA

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Use vSphere On-disk Metadata Analyser (VOMA) to identify and fix incidents of metadata corruption that affect file systems or underlying logical volumes ……
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc/GUID-6F991DB5-9AF0-4F9F-809C-B82D3EED7DAF.html

NEW QUESTION 285
When using VMware Converter to import a Windows server and improve the consistency of the destination virtual machine, which optional step can be performed immediately prior to powering down the source server?

A.    Uninstall production applications.
B.    Perform a final synchronization task.
C.    Remove the server from the Active Directory domain.
D.    Remove the server from the network.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 286
Which three statements are correct regarding booting an ESXi Host from Fibre Giannel SAN? (Choose three.)

A.    Direct connect topology is supported.
B.    Multipathing to a boot LUN on an active-passive array is supported.
C.    ESXi hosts do not require local storage.
D.    Each host must have its own boot LUN.
E.    Hosts can share one common boot LUN.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
When you use boot from SAN with multiple ESXi hosts, each host must have its own boot LUN. If you configure multiple hosts to share the same boot LUN, ESXi image corruption is likely to occur. Multipathing to a boot LUN on active-passive arrays is not supported because the BIOS does not support multipathing and is unable to activate a standby path.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-8FAD881D-7A00-43C9-AB69-66DC7816968C.html

NEW QUESTION 287
Which two storage technologies are supported for MSCS? (Choose two.)

A.    VAAI
B.    NFS
C.    iSCSI
D.    FC

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 288
Which statement regarding datastore clusters meets VMware’s recommended best practices?

A.    Clusters should contain only datastores presented from the same storage array.
B.    Clusters should contain only datastores with equal hardware acceleration capability.
C.    Clusters should contain only datastores using the same connection method (iSCSI, FC, etc.).
D.    Clusters should contain only datastores with the same capacity.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 289
When will vSphere Data Protection delete the expired backup image of a Platform Service Controller?

A.    After the expired backup image is restored.
B.    During the next backup window following expiry.
C.    During the next maintenance window following expiry.
D.    Immediately after the retention period has expired.

Answer: D
Explanation:
During maintenance periods, VDP examines the backups in the appliance and evaluates whether the backup retention period has expired. If it as expired, VDP removes the expired backup from the appliance.
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/vmware-data-protection-administration-guide-60.pdf

NEW QUESTION 290
……


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NEW QUESTION 71
A company plans to automate specific sections of a customer service call center solution. You must develop a bot that can be used on the company’s website to provide answers to frequently asked questions (FAQ). You must create a bot that includes the existing FAQs by using Azure Bot Service with QnA Maker. You need to test the bot. What are two ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    MSBot
B.    Bot Framework Emulator
C.    Web chat in Azure portal
D.    ngrok

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 72
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot. The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly. You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot. What should you implement?

A.    The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B.    The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
C.    The Skype Chanel and Speech priming using a LUIS app.
D.    The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 73
You develop a payment processing solution by using a .NET Framework application. Customer data is spread across multiple Azure SQL Database servers and is not sharded. When a payment is made from one person to another person, data may be changed in multiple databases at once. You need to ensure transactional atomicity across databases. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    In the solution, use the OpenConnectionForKey function to reference each database that will be included during a distributed transaction.
B.    In Azure PowerShell, create a new communication relationship between each database that requires distributed transactions.
C.    Use the Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordination (MS DTC) service to configure distributed transactions between each database.
D.    In the solution, create new SqlConnection objects for each database that will be included during a distributed transaction.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview#transactions-across-multiple-servers

NEW QUESTION 74
You are developing a .NET Core on-premises application that updates multiple Azure SQL Database instances. The application must log all update commands attempted to a separate Azure SQL database instance named AuditDb. You define an outer TransactionScope with a loop to enumerate and run the SQL commands on each customer database connection and an inner TransactionScope to record all transactions attempted within the outer TransactionScope to the AuditDb database. You need to develop a method to perform the updates to the databases. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– All rows written to the AuditDb database must be committed even if the outer transaction fails.
– If an error occurs writing to the AuditDb database, the outer transaction must be rolled back.
– If an error occurs writing to the Customer databases, only the outer transaction must be rolled back.
– Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the customer databases.
– Values for TransactionScopeOption must be specified for the AuditDb database.
Which TransactionScopeOption values should you use?

A.    Required for TransactionScopeOption and Required for AuditTranScopeOption
B.    Required for TransactionScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTransScopeOption
C.    Suppress for TransactionScopeOption and Suppress for AuditTranScopeOption
D.    Suppress for TransactionScopeOption and RequiresNew for AuditTranScopeOption

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/transactions/implementing-an-implicit-transaction-using-transaction-scope?view=netframework-4.7.2

NEW QUESTION 75
You have implemented code that uses elastic transactions spanning across three different Azure SQL Database logical servers. Database administrators report that some transactions take longer to complete than expected. You need to use the correct tool to monitor all the transactions originating from the elastic transaction implementation. Which tool should you use?

A.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_transactions dynamic management view.
B.    Use the dependencies section of Azure Applications Insights.
C.    Run the sys.dm_tran_current_snapshot dynamic view.
D.    Run the sys.dm_tran_active_snapshot_database_transactions dynamic management view.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-transactions-overview

NEW QUESTION 76
A company named Contoso Ltd., has a single-domain Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Contoso is preparing to migrate all workloads to Azure. Contoso wants users to use single sign-on (SSO) when they access cloud-based services that integrate with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to identify any objects in Active Directory that will fail to synchronize to Azure AD due to formatting issues. The solution must minimize costs. What should you include in the solution?

A.    Azure Advisor
B.    Password Export Server version 3.1 (PES v3.1) in Active Directory Migration Tool (ADMT)
C.    Azure AD Connect Health
D.    Microsoft Office 365 IdFix

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 77
You host an on-premises ASP.NET Web API at the company headquarters. The Web API is consumed by applications running at the company’s branch offices using the Azure Relay service. All the users of the applications are on the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to ensure that the applications can consume the Web API. What should you do?

A.    Create separate AD groups named Senders and Receivers.
In Access Control (IAM) for the relay namespace, assign Senders the Reader role and assign Receivers the Reader role.
B.    Create a Shared Access policy for send permissions and another for Receive permissions.
C.    Create dedicated Azure AD identities named Sender and Receiver.
Assign Sender the Azure AD Identity Reader role.
Assign Receiver the Azure AD Identity reader role.
Configure applications to use the respective identities.
D.    Create a Shared Access policy for the namespace.
Use a connection string in the Web API and use a different connection string in consumer applications.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-relay/relay-authentication-and-authorization

NEW QUESTION 78
You create an Azure Time Series Insights event handler. You need to send data over the network as efficiently as possible and optimize query performance. What should you do?

A.    Use a Tag ID.
B.    Use reference data.
C.    Send all properties.
D.    Create a query plan.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 79
Your company has 300 virtual machines hosted in a VMWare environment. The virtual machines vary in size and have various utilization levels. You plan to move all the virtual machines to Azure. You need to recommend how many and what size Azure virtual machines will be required to move the current workloads to Azure. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use to make the recommendation?

A.    Azure Advisor Recommendations
B.    Azure Cost Management
C.    Azure Pricing Migrate
D.    Azure Pricing Calculator

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/pricing/details/azure-migrate/

NEW QUESTION 80
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster. The cluster contains Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016 Datacenter. The hosts are licensed under a Microsoft Enterprise agreement that has Software Assurance. The Hyper-V cluster contains 30 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each virtual machine runs a different workload. The workloads have predictable consumption patterns. You plan to replace the virtual machines with Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. The virtual machines will be sized according to the consumption pattern of each workload. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the compute costs of the Azure virtual machines. Which two recommendations should include in the solution? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Configure a spending limit in the Azure account center.
B.    Activate Azure Hybrid Benefit for the Azure virtual machines.
C.    Purchase Azure reserved Virtual Machine Instances for the Azure virtual machines.
D.    Create a lab in Azure DevTest Labs and place the Azure virtual machines in the lab.
E.    Create a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/pricing/hybrid-benefit/

NEW QUESTION 81
You have 100 Standard_F2s_v2 Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has two network adapters. You need to increase the network performance of the workloads running on the virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– The CPU-to-memory ratio must remain the same.
– The solution must minimize costs.
What should you do?

A.    Configure NIC teaming.
B.    Enable SR-IOV.
C.    Install an additional network adapter.
D.    Enable RDMA over InfiniBand.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/create-vm-accelerated-networking-powershell?toc=%2fazure%2fvirtual-machines%2fwindows%2ftoc.json

NEW QUESTION 82
You plan to develop an Azure Stream Analytics job that ingests streaming data from legacy SaaS, and cloud applications. The data will be used to launch workflows which perform data analysis. You need to select Azure resources to handle the data input and output for the solution. Which resources should you use?

A.    Input: Event Hub, output: IoT Hub
B.    Input: Blobs, output: IoT Hub
C.    Input: Event Hub, output: Service Bus
D.    Input: Event Hub, output: Azure SQL database

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 83
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid. You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the executions of the app. What should you configure when you create the function app?

A.    The Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan.
B.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier.
C.    The Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier
D.    The Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale

NEW QUESTION 84
Hotspot
You have 20 Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 based on a custom virtual machine image. Each virtual machine hosts an instance of a VSS-capable web app that was developed in-house. Each instance is accessed by using a public endpoint. Each instance uses a separate database. The average database size is 200 GB. You need to design a disaster recovery solution for individual instances. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide a recovery time objective (RTO) of six hours.
– Provide a recovery point (RPO) of eight hours.
– Support recovery to a different Azure region.
– Support VSS-based backups.
– Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 85
Drag and Drop
You are developing an IoT solution. The solution requires bidirectional communication between a .NET application and Azure IoT Hub. You need to obtain connection information for a single test device. Which three commands should you use to develop the solution? (To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 86
……


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NEW QUESTION 83
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Cosmos DB account. You need to recommend a solution to generate an alert from Azure Log Analytics when a request charge for a query exceeds 50 request units more than 20 times within a 15-minute window. What should you recommend?

A.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure an alert threshold of 20 and a period of 15.
B.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20 and requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure a period of 15.
C.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15 and a frequency of 20.
D.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 84
You are designing a data protection strategy for Azure virtual machines. All the virtual machines are in the Standard tier and use managed disks. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
– The use of encryption keys is audited.
– All the data is encrypted at rest always.
You manage the encryption keys, not Microsoft. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker)
B.    Azure Storage Service Encryption
C.    Client-side Encryption
D.    Azure Disk Encryption

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-overview

NEW QUESTION 85
You have 100 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2 and host Microsoft SQL Server 2012 R2 instances. The instances host databases that have the following characteristics:
– The largest database is currently 3 TB.
– None of the databases will ever exceed 4 TB.
– Stored procedures are implemented by using CLR.
You plan to move all the data from SQL Server to Azure. You need to recommend an Azure service to host the databases. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Whenever possible, minimize management overhead for the migrated databases.
– Minimize the number of database changes required to facilitate the migration.
– Ensure that users can authenticate by using their Active Directory credentials.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure SQL Database single databases
B.    Azure SQL Database Managed Instance
C.    Azure SQL Database elastic pools
D.    SQL Server 2016 on Azure virtual machines

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 86
You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web application. The web application will send data daily. You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the following requirements:
– Sends email notification when data is received from IoT devices.
– Minimizes compute cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action.
B.    Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding.
C.    Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action.
D.    Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 87
You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on-premises physical server workloads. Each server workload is independent of the other. The workloads are stateless. You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on-premises data center fails, the workloads are available in Azure as quickly as possible. Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Latest
B.    Latest app-consistent
C.    Latest multi-VM processed
D.    Latest processed

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-failover

NEW QUESTION 88
You plan to move a web application named App1 from an on-premises data center to Azure. App1 depends on a custom framework that is installed on the host server. You need to recommend a solution to host App1 in Azure. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– App1 must be available to users if an Azure data center becomes unavailable.
– Costs must be minimized.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    In two Azure regions, deploy a Traffic Manager profile and a web app.
B.    In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set.
C.    Deploy a load balancer and a virtual machine scale set across two availability zones.
D.    In two Azure regions, deploy a load balancer and a web app.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 89
You have an on-premises deployment of MongoDB. You plan to migrate MongoDB to an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the MongoDB API. You need to recommend a solution for migrating MongoDB to Azure Cosmos DB. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    mongorestore
B.    Data Migration Assistant
C.    Azure Storage Explorer
D.    Azure Cosmos DB Data Migration Tool

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/mongodb-migrate

NEW QUESTION 90
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the following requirements:
– Ensures that application can access the data by using a REST connection.
– Hosts 20 independent tables of varying sizes and usage patterns.
– Automatically replicates the data to a second Azure region Minimizes costs.
What should you recommend?

A.    an Azure SQL Database elastic database pool that uses active geo-replication
B.    tables in an Azure Storage account that uses geo-redundant storage (GRS)
C.    tables in an Azure Storage account that use read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GR)
D.    an Azure SQL database that uses active geo-replication

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 91
You deploy two instances of an Azure web app. One instance is in the East US Azure region and the other instance is in the West US Azure region. The web app uses Azure Blob storage to deliver large files to end users. You need to recommend a solution for delivering the files to the users. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that the users receive files from the same region as the web app that they access.
– Ensure that the files only need to be updated once.
– Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure File Sync
B.    Distributed File System (DFS)
C.    read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
D.    geo-redundant storage (GRS)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 92
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive workload that performs financial risk modelling. You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch. You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
– Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?

A.    Basic A-series virtual machines
B.    low-priority virtual machines
C.    burstable virtual machines
D.    Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

NEW QUESTION 93
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All user accounts are syncrhonized from an onpermises Directory and are configured for federated authentication. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) servers are published for external connnection by using a farm Application proxy servers. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the servers that integrate with Azure AD. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Identify any AD FS issue and their potential resolutions.
– Identify any directory synchronization configuration issues and their potential resolutions.
– Notify administrations when there are any issue affecting directory synchronization or AD FS operations.
Which monitoring solution should you recommend for each server type? (To answer, drag the appropriate monitoring solution to the correct types. Each monitoring solution may be used once, than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 94
Drag and Drop
You need to design an architecture to capture the creation of users and the assignment of roles. The captured data must be stored in Azure Cosmos DB. Which Azure services should you include in the design? (To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct targets. Each service may be used once. more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 95
Hotspot
You plan to deploy logical Azure SQL Database servers to The East US Azure region and the Wen US Azure region. Each server will contain 20 database accessed by a different user who reads in a different on premises location. The databases will be configured to use active geo-replication. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
– Restricts user access to each database.
– Restricts network access to each database based on each user’s respective location.
– Ensures that the databases remain accessible from down applications if the local Azure region fails.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 96
Hotspot
Your company has three branch offices and an Azure subscription. Each branch office contains a Hyper-V host that hosts application servers. You need to recommend a storage solution for the branch offices. The solution must ensure that the application servers can connect to a central storage device by using iSCSI connections. Data saved to the iSCSI storage device from the application servers must be uploaded to Azure automatically. Which components should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storsimple/storsimple-ova-overview

NEW QUESTION 97
Drag and Drop
You have standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet. You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails. Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? (To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 98
Drag and Drop
You have an on-premises network that uses on IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new azure subscription. You identity the following technical requirements. All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet subnet1. All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on premises severs. The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site to site VPN. You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct subnet. Each network address may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 99
Hotspot
Your company has an API that returns XML data to internal applications. You plan to migrate the applications to Azure. You also plan to allow the company’s partners to access the API. You need to recommend an API management solution that meets the following requirements:
– Internal applications must receive data in the JSON format once the applications migrate to Azure.
– Partner applications must have their header information stripped before the applications receive the data.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/deploy-new-installations/delegate-installations?view=exchserver-2019

NEW QUESTION 100
Hotspot
Your company has 20 web APIs that were developed in-house. The company is developing 10 web apps that will use the web APIs. The web apps and the APIs are registered in the company’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The web APIs are published by using Azure API Management. You need to recommend a solution to block unauthorized requests originating from the web apps from reaching the web APIs. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Use Azure AD-generated claims.
– Minimize configuration and management effort.
What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 101
……


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NEW QUESTION 451
When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A.    Distributed
B.    Standalone
C.    Bridge

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 452
Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

A.    RADIUS
B.    Active Directory Query
C.    Remote Access
D.    Certificates

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 453
How are the backups stored in Chock Point appliances?

A.    Saved as xxx.tar under /var/log/Cpbackup/backups
B.    Saved as xxx.tgz under /var/cppbackup
C.    Saved as xxx.tar under /var/cppbackup
D.    Saved as xxx.tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 454
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A.    URL Filtering and Network
B.    Network and Threat Prevention
C.    Application Control and URL Filtering
D.    Network and Application Control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 455
It is best practice to have a ____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

A.    Explicit Drop
B.    Implied Drop
C.    Explicit Cleanup
D.    Implicit Drop

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456
How many sessions can be opened on the Management Server at the same time?

A.    Unlimited, one per each licensed gateway.
B.    One.
C.    Unlimited, multiple per administrator.
D.    Unlimited, one per administrator.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 457
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ____ mode.

A.    Main
B.    Authentication
C.    Quick
D.    High Alert

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458
What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

A.    Application Control DLP
B.    Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall
C.    ACL SandBlast, MPT
D.    IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 459
Which identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

A.    AD Query
B.    Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent
C.    Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication
D.    RADIUS and Account Logon

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 460
The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to delect and block malware.

A.    Next Generation Threat Prevention
B.    Next Generation Threat Emulation
C.    Next Generation Threat Extraction
D.    Next Generation Firewall

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 461
The position of an Implied rule is manipulated in the ____ window.

A.    NAT
B.    Firewall
C.    Global Properties
D.    Object Explorer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 462
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A.    SmarrUpda-re
B.    cpconfig
C.    SmarrConsole
D.    sysconfig

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 463
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?
……

NEW QUESTION 464
What type of NAT is one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A.    Source
B.    Static
C.    Hide
D.    Destination

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/9321/FILE/WP0018a.pdf

NEW QUESTION 465
What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsoles tab and the Install Policy button within a specific policy?

A.    The Global one also saves and publishes the session before installation.
B.    The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.
C.    The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.
D.    The second one pre-selects the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 466
To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A.    Protections
B.    IPS Protections
C.    Profiles
D.    ThreatWiki

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 467
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

A.    Access Role
B.    User Group
C.    SmartDirectory Group
D.    Group Template

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 468
What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

A.    Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.
B.    Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.
C.    To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D.    Used to better optimize a policy.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 469
Which icon indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A.    Pencil
B.    Padlock
C.    Book
D.    Eyeglasses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 470
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

A.    SmartUpdate installation.
B.    DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic.
C.    USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic.
D.    Cloud based installation.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471
……


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NEW QUESTION 380
Mobile Access supports all of the following methods of Link Translation EXCEPT which?

A.    Hostname Translation (HT)
B.    Path Translation (PT)
C.    URL Translation (UT)
D.    Identity Translation (IT)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 381
Which statement is true of the API server on R80.10?

A.    By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.
B.    By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.
C.    By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).
D.    By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand- alone servers with 8 GB of RAM (or more).

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 382
How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

A.    2 (OS) images
B.    images are chosen by administrator during installation
C.    as many as licensed for
D.    the most new image

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 383
Which deployment methods can an administrator choose when deploying the Sandblast agent?

A.    Manually installing the deployment agent on each workstation.
B.    Use GPO and SCCM to deploy the deployment agent.
C.    Use both SCCM and GPO for the deployment agent and End Point Management to push the Agent.
D.    Use the Configure SandBlast Agent to push the Agent.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 384
Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R80.10 SmartConsole application?

A.    IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation
B.    Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control
C.    IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction
D.    Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 385
What’s true about Troubleshooting option in the IPS profile properties?

A.    Temporarily change the active protection profile to “Default_Protection”.
B.    Temporarily set all protections to track (log) in SmartView Tracker.
C.    Temporarily will disable IPS kernel engine.
D.    Temporarily set all active protections to Detect.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 386
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A.    This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.
B.    This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.
C.    This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
D.    Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 387
Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.    cphaprob interface
B.    cphaprob -l interface
C.    cphaprob -a if
D.    cphaprob stat

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 388
What is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.    Lagging
B.    Synchronized
C.    Never been synchronized
D.    Collision

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 389
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which of these steps should NOT be performed?

A.    Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
B.    Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
C.    Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
D.    Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 390
During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.    Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation.
B.    Host having a Critical event found by IPS.
C.    Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus.
D.    Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 391
What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solutions?

A.    Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
B.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.
C.    Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.
D.    Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 392
You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R80.10. What tool could you use in this process?

A.    migrate export
B.    upgrade_tools verify
C.    pre_upgrade_verifier
D.    migrate import

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 393
After successfully exporting a policy package, how would you import that package into another SMS database in R80.10?

A.    import_package.py
B.    upgrade_import
C.    migrate
D.    cp_merge

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 394
Choose the ClusterXL process that is defined by default as a critical device?

A.    cpp
B.    fwm
C.    assld
D.    fwd

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 395
Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A.    Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules
B.    Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
C.    Automatic Hide NAT
D.    Automatic Static NAT

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 396
Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within ____.

A.    summary
B.    views
C.    reports
D.    checkups

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 397
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

A.    Accept
B.    Drop
C.    NAT
D.    None

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 398
As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name `cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

A.    $FWDIR/smartevent/conf
B.    $RTDIR/smartevent/conf
C.    $RTDIR/smartview/conf
D.    $FWDIR/smartview/conf

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 399
What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.    fwm compile
B.    fwm load
C.    fwm fetch
D.    fwm install

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 400
What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

A.    fw ctl stat
B.    clusterXL stat
C.    clusterXL status
D.    cphaprob stat

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 401
What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.    Cloud, Appliance and Private.
B.    Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid.
C.    Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid.
D.    Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 402
……


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NEW QUESTION 293
Which command is used to check if an MGCP gateway is currently registered with Cisco CallManager?

A.    Router# show ccm-manager gateway
B.    Router# show mgcp ccm-manager
C.    Router# show ccm-manager
D.    Router# show ccm manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 294
Which reason for calls being disconnected just after connection is true?

A.    An incompatible MTP type is allocated to the call.
B.    Codec are mismatched between phones.
C.    Firewall is blocking RTP packets.
D.    Phone A is using SCCP and phone B is using SIP.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 295
An engineer is configuring inter-site dialing for a company with several branch offices. Due to overlapping extensions at some sites, the site code *3XX is used, where XX is the branch number is the prefixed code. The engineer cannot dial the number at the new branch from head office. Which configuration parameter can the engineer use to resolve this issue?

A.    gatekeeper
B.    translation pattern
C.    route pattern
D.    transformation profile

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 296
An endpoint cannot connect to a valid TFTP server during the registration process. Which two statements describe possible causes? (Choose two.)

A.    The DHCP configuration contains TFTP server 66, but no DNS server is available.
B.    The DHCP configuration contains TFTP server 150, but no DNS server is available.
C.    No separate voice VLAN configuration on the switch port connected to the endpoint.
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager CallManager services are not started.
E.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP services are not started.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 297
An engineer is troubleshooting an intersite call between two endpoints where calls are intermediately failing with the error message: “488 Not Acceptable Media”. Which option causes this error message to trigger?

A.    The device pool contains more call processing agents in the CMG group than the endpoint can support.
B.    MRGL contains more media groups than the endpoint can support.
C.    A lower bandwidth is set in the location than the endpoint can support.
D.    The hunt group contains more devices than the endpoint can support.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 298
You are troubleshooting an ILS connectivity issue. All clusters are set to “Use TLS Certificates”. Which certificates must be exchanged between Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters?

A.    Tomcat certificates between all nodes in all clusters.
B.    TLS certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.
C.    Call Manager certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.
D.    Tomcat certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 299
An engineer is analyzing an issue about system connection under Cisco TMS connection, where endpoints handled by TMS automatically change from reachable on LAN to behind the firewall status. Which protocol does the network engineer need to troubleshoot the network between managed device Cisco TMS?

A.    SDP
B.    XMPP
C.    FTP
D.    HTTP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 300
Which two types of call causes the user to hear the reorder tone? (Choose two.)

A.    call to a number that is working but is unlisted
B.    restricted call
C.    call using a non-Cisco phone
D.    call to a number that has been blocked
E.    unrestricted call

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 301
Replication is failing between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Publisher and Subscriber servers. In which two ways can you verify the database replication status? (Choose two.)

A.    TRACERT
B.    CLI
C.    APIC-EM
D.    PING
E.    RTMT

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 302
An engineer is investigating voice quality degradation on calls passing through a particular SIP gateway. To gather the necessary information, sample traffic captures are taken. Which information in the capture reveals the problem?

A.    destination port
B.    version
C.    ToS bits
D.    MTU

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 303
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to look at detailed specific events, such as dial plan digit analysis, as they are happening?

A.    RTMT real-time trace
B.    Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
C.    Syslog output
D.    RTMT performance log viewer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 304
An engineer is troubleshooting an issue where aliases that contain an identity “@abc.com” are unable to register with an endpoint due to an entry in the registration restriction configuration in Expressway-E. Where is the alias being blocked in Expressway-E?

A.    regex list
B.    hunt list
C.    black list
D.    allow list

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 305
Which two statements about Cisco Unified CM location bandwidth deduction are true? (Choose two.)

A.    If a call uses G.711, Cisco Unified Communications Manager subtracts 64k.
B.    If a call uses G.711, Cisco Unified Communications Manager subtracts 80k.
C.    If a call uses G.723, Cisco Unified Communications Manager subtracts 16k.
D.    If a call uses G.729, Cisco Unified Communications Manager subtracts 16k.
E.    If a call uses G.729, Cisco Unified Communications Manager subtracts 24k.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 306
Which two issues can cause a Cisco Unified Communications Manager to fail to register with its Cisco SAF Forwarder? (Choose two.)

A.    An H.323 SAF trunk was configured instead of a SIP SAF trunk.
B.    No directory number patterns were configured on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C.    CCD advertising service was not activated.
D.    Incorrect user credentials were used on the SAF Forwarder.
E.    CCD requesting service was not activated.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 307
Company XYZ reports that their SAF calls are being routed through the PSTN. Which cause of the issue is true?

A.    TCP Connection Failure has occurred between the SAF Forwarder and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Managed did not increment the service number correctly.
C.    The maximum number of learned patterns have being reached.
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager did not construct the SAF message correctly.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 308
Which action can you take to prevent users from transferring external calls to external devices?

A.    Enable the Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer feature in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B.    Block the National route pattern.
C.    Remove the route pattern to prevent inbound calls from matching the gateway.
D.    Create a new translation pattern to block external call transfer.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 309
Which CLI command is used to troubleshoot ILS network connection issues within the local Cisco Unified CM cluster to determine which server within the cluster is the xnode?

A.    utils ils lookup
B.    utils ils showpeerinfo
C.    utils ils display xnode
D.    utils ils find xnode

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 310
After you deploy a new Cisco Collaboration solution, users report echoes and choppy voice quality. Which two actions correct the problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Upgrade the Cisco IOS version and flash memory on the Cisco IOS router.
B.    Deploy additional hardware resources.
C.    Deploy an echo canceller.
D.    Upgrade Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E.    Enable QoS on the network.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 311
……


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NEW QUESTION 552
A dual-homed office is opposed to using path optimization by flows. Which two features help with application resiliency? (Choose two.)

A.    PfR
B.    ATM
C.    CEF
D.    MLPPP

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 553
How many multicast groups can one multicast MAC address represent?

A.    1
B.    128
C.    16
D.    32

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 554
A company must acquire register IP address space from a regional Internet authority and multihome the Internet connection to multiple Internet service providers. Due to limited IPv4 address availability the company was able to allocate only a /24 address block. Which method must be used to ensure that the primary data center receives all traffic unless it is offline?

A.    BGP: AS prepend at the secondary DC.
B.    EIGRP: Advertise two /25 address blocks to each ISP at the primary DC and a /24 at the secondary DC.
C.    BGP: Advertise two /25 address blocks to each ISP at the secondary DC and a /24 at the primary DC.
D.    OSPF: AS prepend at the secondary DC.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 555
An engineer is seeking to improve access layer convergence. Which two actions accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    Prune unused VLANs to switches
B.    Implement MST
C.    Propagate all VLANs to switches
D.    Configure storm control
E.    Utilize Rapid PVST+

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 556
Which first hop redundancy protocol ensures that load balancing occurs over multiple routers using an angle virtual IP address and multiple Virtual MAC addresses?

A.    GLBP
B.    VRRP
C.    HSRP
D.    IRDP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 557
Which IPv6 migration strategy supports IPv4 and IPv6 on the same router?

A.    IPv6 translation
B.    Dual-stack
C.    IPv6 tunneling
D.    NAT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 558
While designing quality of service policies, which two types of traffic must be prioritized as management traffic? (Choose two.)

A.    SCP
B.    ICMP
C.    RADIUS
D.    HTTPS
E.    SSH

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 559
A company is building a large data center. About 80% of its traffic will be north to south and the other 20% will be east to west. The company is also expecting a significant amount of data center growth over the next 5-10 years but wants to keep the cost of growth low. Which data center design is best suited to meet these goals?

A.    a spine and leaf design with Layer 2/3 termination on the leaf nodes
B.    a two-tier design with the Layer 2 termination on data center core
C.    a three user design with a Layer 3 termination on the data center core
D.    a spine and leaf design with Layer 2/3 termination on the some nodes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 560
Which feature regarding a FlexLink design is true?

A.    It permits VLANs to extend across access switches that connect to a common aggregation module.
B.    All of the uplinks are in active state.
C.    The aggregation layer is aware of FlexLinks.
D.    It optimizes the access switch density.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 561
An engineer is integrate a recently acquired company’s network that has overlapping IP address space Users of the new acquisition must have access to corporate applications. Which action is the most efficient way to provide this access?

A.    Build Mo-1 NAT translation for users that need access.
B.    Re-IP overlapping address space in the acquired company.
C.    Use a single IP address to create overload NAT.
D.    Create NAT translation by utilizing a pool of NAT IP addresses.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 562
Which feature is a fundamental process of the Cisco TrustSec technology?

A.    marking
B.    detection
C.    prioritization
D.    propagation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 563
An engineer has been requested to utilize a method in an ACI network that will ensure only permitted communications are transmitted between each End Point Group tier in a three tier application. Which element would be utilized to accomplish this within the fabric?

A.    Contract
B.    Subject
C.    Label
D.    Filter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 564
Which mechanism is enabled by default in the OTV technology to conserve bandwidth?

A.    Control plane traffic is prevented from traversing the OTV link.
B.    Unknown unicast flooding is suppressed over the OTV link.
C.    BPDUs are allowed to traverse the OTV link.
D.    Data plane traffic is prevented from traversing the OTV link.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 565
An engineer is considering time of convergence in a new Layer 3 environment design. Which two attribute must be considered? (Choose two.)

A.    OSPF database updates
B.    addition of a valid forwarding path
C.    forwarding table updates
D.    loss of a valid forwarding path
E.    SPT timer updates

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 566
What are the two mam elements used by RBAC to provide secure access within an Enterprise? (Choose two.)

A.    User Locales
B.    User Roles
C.    User Domains
D.    User Profile
E.    User Privileges

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 567
A legacy OSPF network design solution historically included a large number of routers in a single backbone area 0. The network currently has over 300 OSPF routers How is this network redesigned to further expansion?

A.    Implement route summarization on the routers in backbone area.
B.    Use EIGRP routing protocol instead of OSPF.
C.    Adjust OSPF timers to smaller values.
D.    Break down area 0 into smaller nobackbone areas.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 568
An engineer must optimize a single-homed connection in a small branch office. Which technology accomplishes this goal?

A.    MSE
B.    WAE
C.    DMVPN
D.    MPLS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 569
An engineer has been asked to design a LAN topology with high Availability and the loop-free features of STP. It must also support Etherchannel between multiple chassis and a separate control plane for each switch terminating these multiple connections. Which technology should the engineer recommend to be deployment on the upstream switches?

A.    StackWise
B.    FEX
C.    VSS
D.    VPC

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 570
An engineer must deploy a corporate QoS design in the shortest time possible. Which model accomplishes this goal?

A.    DiffServ
B.    intServ
C.    WRED
D.    Auto-QoS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 571
……


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NEW QUESTION 81
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain and two Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants. You plan to implement directory synchronization for both Azure AD tenants. Each tenant will contain some of the Active Directory users. You need to recommend a solution for the planned directory synchronization. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Deploy two servers that run Azure AD Connect, and then filter the users for each tenant by using organizational unit (OU)-based filtering.
B.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect, and then specify two sync groups.
C.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect, and then filter the users for each tenant by using organizational unit (OU)-based filtering.
D.    Deploy one server that runs Azure AD Connect, and then filter the users for each tenant by using domain-based filtering.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-topologies#multiple-azure-ad-tenants

NEW QUESTION 82
You have an on-premises web application that is published by using a URL of https://app.contoso.local. You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription. Several external users must be able to connect to the web application. You need to recommend a solution for external access to the application. The solution must support multi-factor authentication. Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From an on-premises server, install a connector and then publish the app.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, enable an Application Proxy.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.
D.    From an on-premises server, install an Authentication Agent.
E.    Republish the web application by using https://app.contoso.local.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy-add-on-premises-application

NEW QUESTION 83
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.local. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to implement a directory synchronization solution that will use password hash synchronization. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you verify the contoso.com domain name. You need to prepare the environment for the planned directory synchronization solution. What should you do first?

A.    From the public DNS zone of contoso.com, add a new mail exchanger (MX) record.
B.    From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, add contoso.com as a UPN suffix.
C.    From the Microsoft 365 admin center, verify the contoso.local domain name.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the UPN suffix for all users.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 84
You purchase Microsoft 365, and then implement directory synchronization. You plan to publish the web applications. You need to ensure that all the applications are accessible by using the My Apps portal. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you do first?

A.    Deploy one conditional access policy.
B.    Deploy one connector.
C.    Create four application registrations.
D.    Create a site-to-site VPN from Microsoft Azure to the on-premises network.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 85
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You add an app named App1 to the enterprise applications in contoso.com. You need to configure self-service for App1. What should you do first?

A.    Assign App1 to users and groups.
B.    Add an owner to App1.
C.    Configure the provisioning mode for App1.
D.    Configure an SSO method for App1.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/manage-self-service-access

NEW QUESTION 86
HotSpot
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five domain controllers. Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You plan to establish federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You need to establish the federation. What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 87
Drag and Drop
You have several Microsoft SharePoint document libraries in your on-premises environment. You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that has directory synchronization implemented. You plan to move all the document libraries to SharePoint Online. You need to recommend a migration strategy for the document libraries. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 88
You have an on-premises Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016 environment. You create a Microsoft 365 tenant. You need to migrate some of the SharePoint sites to SharePoint Online. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Microsoft OneDrive sites must redirect users to online content.
– Users must be able to follow both on-premises and cloud-based sites.
– Users must have a single SharePoint profile for both on-premises and on the cloud.
– When users search for a document by using keywords, the results must include online and on-premises results.
From the SharePoint Hybrid Configuration Wizard, you select the following features:
– Hybrid business to business (B2B) sites Hybrid OneDrive
– Hybrid Search
Which two requirements are met by using the SharePoint Hybrid Configuration Wizard features? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Users must have a single SharePoint profile for both on-premises and on the cloud.
B.    OneDrive sites must redirect users to online content.
C.    Users must be able to follow both on-premises and cloud-based sites.
D.    When users search for a document by using keywords, the results must include online and on-premises results.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 89
Your network contains two Active Directory forests. Each forest contains two domains. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain-joined. You plan to configure Hybrid Azure AD join for the computers. You create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to ensure that the computers can discover the Azure AD tenant. What should you create?

A.    a new computer account for each computer
B.    a new service connection point (SCP) for each domain
C.    a new trust relationship for each forest
D.    a new service connection point (SCP) for each forest

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/devices/hybrid-azuread-join-manual

NEW CASE STUDY 1
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The offices have the users and devices shown in the following table:
……
The network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com. You recently configured the forest to sync to the Azure AD tenant. You add and then verify adatum.com as an additional domain name. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All desktop computers and laptops run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to contoso.com. All the mobile devices in the Montreal and Seattle offices run Android. All the mobile devices in the New York office run iOS. Contoso has the users shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 90
You need to add the custom domain names to Office 365 to support the planned changes as quickly as possible. What should you create to verify the domain names successfully?

A.    three alias (CNAME) records
B.    one text (TXT) record
C.    one alias (CNAME) record
D.    three text (TXT) records

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 91
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role. From the Exchange admin center, you assign User2 the Compliance Management role.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 92
……

NEW CASE STUDY 2
Fabrikam, Inc. is an electronics company that produces consumer products. Fabrikam has 10,000 employees worldwide. Fabrikam has a main office in London and branch offices in major cities in Europe, Asia, and the United States.
……
The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. The forest contains all the identities used for user and computer authentication. Each department is represented by a top-level organizational unit (OU) that contains several child OUs for user accounts and computer accounts.
……

NEW QUESTION 101
Which role should you assign to User1?

A.    Security Administrator
B.    Records Management
C.    Security Reader
D.    Hygiene Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102
You need to meet the application requirement for App1. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the application URL settings.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add an enterprise application.
C.    On an on-premises server, download and install the Microsoft AAD Application Proxy connector.
D.    On an on-premises server, install the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
E.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Software download settings.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy#how-application-proxy-works

NEW QUESTION 103
You need to ensure that all the sales department users can authenticate successfully during Project1 and Project2. Which authentication strategy should you implement for the pilot projects?

A.    password hash synchronization and seamless SSO
B.    pass-through authentication
C.    password hash synchronization
D.    pass-through authentication and seamless SSO

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-choose-authn

NEW QUESTION 104
……


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NEW QUESTION 300
A security operations team was alerted to abnormal DNS activity coming from a user’s machine. The team performed a forensic investigation and discovered a host had been compromised. Malicious code was using DNS as a tunnel to extract data from the client machine, which had been leaked and transferred to an unsecure public Internet site. Which of the following BEST describes the attack?

A.    Phishing
B.    Pharming
C.    Cache poisoning
D.    Data exfiltration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 301
Which of the following is the MOST secure method to perform dynamic analysis of malware that can sense when it is in a virtual environment?

A.    Place the malware on an isolated virtual server disconnected from the network.
B.    Place the malware in a virtual server that is running Windows and is connected to the network.
C.    Place the malware on a virtual server connected to a VLAN.
D.    Place the malware on a virtual server running SIFT and begin analysis.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 302
A company has established an ongoing vulnerability management program and procured the latest technology to support it. However, the program is failing because several vulnerabilities have not been detected. Which of the following will reduce the number of false negatives?

A.    Increase scan frequency.
B.    Perform credentialed scans.
C.    Update the security incident response plan.
D.    Reconfigure scanner to brute force mechanisms.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 303
A cyber incident response team finds a vulnerability on a company website that allowed an attacker to inject malicious code into its web application. There have been numerous unsuspecting users visiting the infected page, and the malicious code executed on the victim’s browser has led to stolen cookies, hijacked sessions, malware execution, and bypassed access control. Which of the following exploits is the attacker conducting on the company’s website?

A.    Logic bomb
B.    Rootkit
C.    Privilege escalation
D.    Cross-site scripting

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 304
After implementing and running an automated patching tool, a security administrator ran a vulnerability scan that reported no missing patches found. Which of the following BEST describes why this tool was used?

A.    To create a chain of evidence to demonstrate when the servers were patched.
B.    To harden the servers against new attacks.
C.    To provide validation that the remediation was active.
D.    To generate log data for unreleased patches.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 305
The board of directors made the decision to adopt a cloud-first strategy. The current security infrastructure was designed for on-premise implementation. A critical application that is subject to the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) of 2002 compliance has been identified as a candidate for a hybrid cloud deployment model. Which of the following should be conducted FIRST?

A.    Develop a request for proposal.
B.    Perform a risk assessment.
C.    Review current security controls.
D.    Review the SLA for FISMA compliance.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 306
Joe, an analyst, has received notice that a vendor who is coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. Which of the following should Joe use to BEST accommodate the vendor?

A.    Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B.    Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C.    Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D.    Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 307
A company allows employees to work remotely. The security administration is configuring services that will allow remote help desk personnel to work secure outside the company’s headquarters. Which of the following presents the BEST solution to meet this goal?

A.    Configure a VPN concentrator to terminate in the DMZ to allow help desk personnel access to resources.
B.    Open port 3389 on the firewall to the server to allow users to connect remotely.
C.    Set up a jump box for all help desk personnel to remotely access system resources.
D.    Use the company’s existing web server for remote access and configure over port 8080.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 308
After an internal audit, it was determined that administrative logins need to use multifactor authentication or a 15-character key with complexity enabled. Which of the following policies should be updates to reflect this change? (Choose two.)

A.    Data ownership policy
B.    Password policy
C.    Data classification policy
D.    Data retention policy
E.    Acceptable use policy
F.    Account management policy

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 309
Management wants to scan servers for vulnerabilities on a periodic basis. Management has decided that the scan frequency should be determined only by vendor patch schedules and the organization’s application deployment schedule. Which of the following would force the organization to conduct an out-of- cycle vulnerability scan?

A.    Newly discovered PII on a server.
B.    A vendor releases a critical patch update.
C.    A critical bug fix in the organization’s application.
D.    False positives identified in production.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 310
A security administrator recently deployed a virtual honeynet. The honeynet is not protected by the company’s firewall, while all production networks are protected by a stateful firewall. Which of the following would BEST allow an external penetration tester to determine which one is the honeynet’s network?

A.    Banner grab
B.    Packet analyzer
C.    Fuzzer
D.    TCP ACK scan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 311
A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability assessment of older SCADA devices on the corporate network. Which of the following compensating controls is likely to prevent the scans from providing value?

A.    Access control list network segmentation that prevents access to the SCADA devices inside the network.
B.    Detailed and tested firewall rules that effectively prevent outside access of the SCADA devices.
C.    Implementation of a VLAN that allows all devices on the network to see all SCADA devices on the network.
D.    SCADA systems configured with `SCADA SUPPORT’=ENABLE.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 312
A logistics company’s vulnerability scan identifies the following vulnerabilities on Internet-facing devices in the DMZ:
– SQL injection on an infrequently used web server that provides files to vendors
– SSL/TLS not used for a website that contains promotional information
The scan also shows the following vulnerabilities on internal resources:
– Microsoft Office Remote Code Execution on test server for a human resources system
– TLS downgrade vulnerability on a server in a development network
In order of risk, which of the following should be patched FIRST?

A.    Microsoft Office Remote Code Execution
B.    SQL injection
C.    SSL/TLS not used
D.    TLS downgrade

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 313
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing Apache logs on a web server and finds that some logs are missing. The analyst has identified that the systems administrator accidentally deleted some log files. Which of the following actions or rules should be implemented to prevent this incident from reoccurring?

A.    Personnel training
B.    Separation of duties
C.    Mandatory vacation
D.    Backup server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 314
While reviewing three months of logs, a security analyst notices probes from random company laptops going to SCADA equipment at the company’s manufacturing location. Some of the probes are getting responses from the equipment even though firewall rules are in place, which should block this type of unauthorized activity. Which of the following should the analyst recommend to keep this activity from originating from company laptops?

A.    Implement a group policy on company systems to block access to SCADA networks.
B.    Require connections to the SCADA network to go through a forwarding proxy.
C.    Update the firewall rules to block SCADA network access from those laptop IP addresses.
D.    Install security software and a host-based firewall on the SCADA equipment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 315
An analyst is preparing for a technical security compliance check on all Apache servers. Which of the following will be the BEST to use?

A.    CIS benchmark
B.    Nagios
C.    OWASP
D.    Untidy
E.    Cain & Abel

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 316
A company provides wireless connectivity to the internal network from all physical locations for company-owned devices. Users were able to connect the day before, but now all users have reported that when they connect to an access point in the conference room, they cannot access company resources. Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the problem?

A.    The access point is blocking access by MAC address. Disable MAC address filtering.
B.    The network is not available. Escalate the issue to network support.
C.    Expired DNS entries on users’ devices. Request the affected users perform a DNS flush.
D.    The access point is a rogue device. Follow incident response procedures.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 317
……


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NEW QUESTION 1390
A technician is tasked with connecting a digital display to a computer that requires a 4GB connection speed. Which of the following types of connection cables is sufficient for this requirement?

A.    DVI-D
B.    Thunderbolt
C.    DVI
D.    HDMI

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1391
Which of the following does a DHCP server provide to a domain-connected computer? (Choose two.)

A.    Print services
B.    Host services
C.    IP address
D.    DNS server address
E.    CDFS
F.    POST service

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 1392
A user is having intermittent problems connecting a computer to the office network. A technician determines the computer’s network cable needs to be replaced. Which of the following tools did the technician use to determine the issue?

A.    Cable toner probe
B.    Cable stripper
C.    Cable tester
D.    WIFI analyzer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1393
A sales representative is planning a business trip that will involve stays at hotels in remote location with little broadband and poor cellular reception. Which of the following does the IT department need to ensure is available on the sales representative’s laptop for reliable telecommunicating while travelling?

A.    RJ-45 jack
B.    Bluetooth capability
C.    RJ-11 jack
D.    PCMICA card

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1394
A customer is looking for a device with high brightness and contrast but can maintain battery life for at least a week. The device will be used exclusively to consume content. Which of the following device types would BEST meet these criteria?

A.    Phablet
B.    E-reader
C.    Smartphone
D.    Tablet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1395
A user reports that a PC monitor does not look correct. The user tried adjusting the settings, but the on- screen appearance worsened. The technician inspects the monitor and notices the left and right sides are concave. Which of the following adjustments would MOST likely fix the monitors issue?

A.    Centering
B.    Gamma
C.    Trapezoid
D.    Pin cushion

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1396
Ann, a customer, is in an area where internet connectivity is available. When trying to access a web page on her laptop, she receives “A page cannot be found” message. Which of the following is the FIRST key Ann should check to troubleshooting the internet connection?

A.    Cellular function key
B.    GPS function toggle
C.    WLAN function toggle
D.    Bluetooth function key

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1397
A 27 in (68.6 cm) analog monitor display shows the left and right sides are bulging outward. Which of the following should the technician performance FIRST to remedy the issue?

A.    Decrease contrast.
B.    Increase trapezoid.
C.    Increase gamma.
D.    Decrease pin cushion.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1398
When working on a computer that supports triple-Channel memory configurations, which of the following RAM modules would provide the BEST memory performance?

A.    2 DIMMs
B.    4 DIMMs
C.    6 DIMMs
D.    8 DIMMs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1399
Joe, a user, recently purchased a new multifunction printer and attempted to installed it himself. He informed a technician that the printer is on his list of printers, but he is unable to print. The technician sees that printer is listed printer under devices and printers. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Reboot the computer into safe mode and try to printer a test page.
B.    Download the correct drives from the manufacture’s website and install them.
C.    Unplug the USB cable from the printer and try another USB slot the PC.
D.    Set the printer as the default within the device properties.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1400
A musician asks for help with connection two MIDI devices to a computer. The computer has one MIDI-in and one MIDI-out port. Which of the following explains how the connections should be made?

A.    Connect the computer MIDI port ton each of the two devices, creating a line configuration.
B.    Connect each MIDI-out to the MIDI-in on another device, creating a circle configuration.
C.    The connections cannot be made due to an insufficient number of ports.
D.    Connect one device at a time to the computer and move the connections when the other device is needed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1401
Which of the following is considered the I/O controller hub?

A.    Southbridge
B.    CPU socket
C.    Front-side bus
D.    PCIe slot

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1402
A user is working on a mobile workstation with a wireless mouse. The cursor around while the user is typing, and the user would like to prevent this occurring. Which of the following should be to solve this problem?

A.    Built-in function keys
B.    Touchpad drivers
C.    BIOS settings
D.    Accessibility settings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1403
One of the functions of a CMOS battery is to ____.

A.    keep the BIOS clock running
B.    preserve the master boot record
C.    provide backup power during a blackout
D.    ensure data is safely written during shutdown

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1404
A technician is setting up a PC to host server in a SOHO. The technician uses a second router for this PC but finds the web server is not accessible from the Internet. The technician verifies the web server itself is properly configured. Which of the following could be enabled on the router to allow all traffic to reach the web server?

A.    IPv6
B.    UPnP
C.    DMZ
D.    WPA2

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1405
A technician is troubleshooting a server RAID array that shows the following error: “DRIVE 0 Not Found”. Which of the following should be checked FIRST in this scenario?

A.    SATA cable
B.    HDD jumper settings
C.    BIOS update
D.    Boot sector configuration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1406
The marking department of a company needs to transfer files to local storage devices for read/write access. Which of the following types external drive connections should the technician recommend for the FASTEST transfer speeds?

A.    eSATA
B.    USB 3.0
C.    SATA
D.    Thunderbolt

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1407
Which of the following IP addresses would indicate a workstation is getting an APIPA address?

A.    10.10.1.1
B.    169.244.0.1
C.    172.168.1.1
D.    192.168.1.1

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1408
An end user reports to the information systems technician that a laptop hangs at the Windows logo for a Windows 7 Pro laptop that was recently dropped. It is suspected that physical damage was caused by the drop. Which of the following is the BEST tool the technician should use to check the hard drive?

A.    Windows Disk Management Utility
B.    Third-party hard drive diagnostic software
C.    The manufacture’s hard drive diagnostic software
D.    The laptop’s built-in hardware diagnostics
E.    Windows chkdsk utility

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1409
A user reports that a laptop will not power on. A technician verifies that the battery and power adapter are functional, replaces the power button and its connector, and removes all external devices. Which of the following hardware components is MOST likely at fault?

A.    Optical drive
B.    Hard drive
C.    Memory socket
D.    SATA controller
E.    System board

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 1410
A company asks a technician to recommend a solution to conserve paper without degrading the print quality. Which of the following printer settings would BEST enable the technician to accomplish this request?

A.    Density
B.    Collate
C.    Duplex
D.    Color management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1411
A user is looking a storage solution that has distributed parity without sacrificing performance. Which of the following is the minimum number of hard drives the technician should recommend the user purchase to meet this need?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1412
……


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NEW QUESTION 90
Two tenants of a shared storage infrastructure plan to combine resources to reduce costs. The tenants must maintain isolation for security purposes. Multiple identical Fibre Channel IDs must be used on the same physical storage network. Which option must be configured for each tenant to enable this plan?

A.    separate VSANs
B.    separate VRF instances
C.    separate vFiler instances
D.    separate zones

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 91
A company wants to replace its customer relationship management system with a subscription-based web application that is hosted by a third party and is accessible from anywhere on the Internet. Which type of product meets these requirements?

A.    Software as a Service
B.    Platform as a Service
C.    Infrastructure as a Service
D.    Application Delivery as a Service

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 92
Cisco UCS and VMware vCenter must be connected for management integration and network communication with the host. To accomplish this, what must be established?

A.    The SSL key must be registered with the external visualization manager.
B.    The VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy must be set on each host so that it can communicate.
C.    The extension key must be registered with the external visualization manager.
D.    ESXi hosts must first be added to the DVS.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 93
Which technology does an engineer deploy to separate a single physical switch into multiple logical contexts?

A.    GVXLAN
B.    VDC
C.    VPC
D.    VRF
E.    VLAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 94
A large organization has purchased its first Cisco UCS B-Series system. This system connects to the existing infrastructure, and engineers must rack and stack the new hardware. Inventory shows that there are 12 blades, 2 chassis, and all of the cabling and FEX cards that are required for those chassis. Which vital component is required before the engineers can complete their task?

A.    Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects
B.    Cisco MDS switches
C.    Cisco UCS Manager
D.    Cisco Nexus switches

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 95
A small start-up wants to maximize its IT budget and intends to use the cloud for its new service. The executive staff expect a one-year development period followed by a rapid growth curve. Which cloud deployment method is most appropriate for the architectural design?

A.    hybrid-private
B.    community
C.    public
D.    private

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 96
A software development company is using an automation tool to create thousands of virtual machines to test daily software builds. When the tests are finished, the virtual machines are automatically deleted. Which characteristic of cloud computing makes this feature achievable?

A.    elasticity
B.    service catalog
C.    resource pooling
D.    multitenancy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 97
An administrator is evaluating different block storage protocol choices. Which configuration area is applicable when using iSCSI?

A.    VLAN
B.    switch feature licensing
C.    software-based initiators
D.    WAN

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 98
An engineer must develop a new solution to streamline internal operations for the company. The goal is to provide faster and automated delivery of IT services to end users at any time. Which cloud characteristic fulfills the goal?

A.    self-service
B.    multitenancy
C.    resource pooling
D.    elasticity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 99
An engineer must connect two existing SANs together via the FCIP protocol. Which platform provides this connectivity?

A.    Cisco MDS 9250i
B.    Cisco Nexus 9396PQ
C.    Cisco MDS 9148S
D.    Cisco Nexus 7010

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 100
For which reason must a storage engineer deploy thick provisioning?

A.    to reduce latency when writing to disk
B.    to minimize data loss in the event of a power outage
C.    to combine multiple LUNs into a single datastore
D.    to maximize disk utilization on the storage array
E.    to guarantee VMs access to their allotted storage

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 101
A cloud engineer must implement an edge switch model that supports iSCSI and FC SAN as well as multiple VSANs and Inter-VSAN Routing. The switching fabric must meet the technical requirements at the lowest possible cost. Which series of switches must the engineer choose to meet these requirements?

A.    Cisco MDS 9100
B.    Cisco Nexus 5000
C.    Cisco Nexus 7000
D.    Cisco MDS 9200

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102
A company has a large number of virtualized servers running a Nexus 1000V. The data center network is running out of VLAN IDs, and in response, an engineer has been tasked to ensure that over 4000 VLANs can be allocated to each virtual host to fix the issue. What solution would satisfy this requirement?

A.    Expand VLAN capabilities on the VEM.
B.    Turn off STP on the Nexus 1000V switches.
C.    Add the Citrix NetScaler 1000V to the network.
D.    Deploy a VXLAN backbone that extends to each virtual switch.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 103
A company is looking for a WAN optimization product to add to its existing Cisco infrastructure. What product would meet this requirement?

A.    Citrix NetScaler 1000v
B.    UCS Invicta
C.    CSR 1000V
D.    vWAAS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 104
A large pharmaceutical company asks its IT services staff to select and deploy to the cloud. The company collects sensitive data on its results across a wide array of drug trials. Which cloud deployment method would be most appropriate for the design?

A.    public
B.    community
C.    hybrid
D.    private

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 105
A service provider is trying to determine how many chassis the company must order to utilize its overstock of Cisco UCS blades. There are currently 12 half-width blades and 6 full-width blades. How many chassis must the company order?

A.    5
B.    3
C.    4
D.    2

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106
Which statement about Fibre Channel and iSCSI storage protocols is true?

A.    Fibre Channel can go up to 40 Gbps, but iSCSI is limited to 1 Gbps.
B.    Fibre Channel and iSCSI are both block-based protocols and are used to access block devices.
C.    Fibre Channel and iSCSI both use IP for communication.
D.    Both protocols are the same.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 107
A company wants to develop software for a mobile, cloud-based application. Due to funding restrictions, there are no resources to support any of the underlying infrastructure such as network, servers, operating systems or storage. Which service model must be used?

A.    Software as a Service
B.    Infrastructure as a Service
C.    On-Demand Self Service
D.    Platform as a Service

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 108
An engineer is running a lab environment on a local PC and wants to simulate a production ESXi environment. Which type of virtualization technology can the engineer deploy on the machine without compromising the ability to use the operating system on the local machine?

A.    Type 2 hypervisor
B.    Type 1 hypervisor
C.    desktop mobility
D.    horizon view

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 109
A mid-sized enterprise is 6 months into a two-year refresh cycle of its infrastructure upgrade. Last week, the new company CEO announced to shareholders an initiative that would pursue the cost savings aspects of cloud computing. An architect must develop the next iteration of the environment. Which cloud deployment method is most appropriate to meet the requirements?

A.    community
B.    hybrid
C.    public
D.    private

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 110
An architect for a company’s private cloud utilizes software-defined networking with the expectation of service microsegmentation. The architect intends to use MAC addresses printed on the network cards for ingress/egress filtering of each VM. Which aspect of virtualization initially impedes the architect’s success?

A.    The MAC addresses are indistinguishable; the hypervisor stacks all the addresses on a single network interface.
B.    The hypervisor translates only TCP/IP addresses from the virtual machines to MAC addresses.
C.    The MAC addresses are not used for ingress/egress filtering; the architect must use TCP/IP.
D.    The virtual machines are not allowed to access the hardware-based MAC address directly.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 111
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You are deploying Microsoft Intune. You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune. When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error. You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You create an Apple Configurator enrollment profile.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint shoring policy to prevent sharing outside your organization. You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified m the future.
Solution: From the SharePoint admin center, you modify the sharing settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Your company purchases a new financial application named App1. From Cloud Discovery in Microsoft Cloud App Security, you view the Discovered apps page and discover that many applications have a low score because they are missing information about domain registration and consumer popularity. You need to prevent the missing information from affecting the score. What should you configure from the Cloud Discover settings?

A.    Organization details
B.    Default behavior
C.    Score metrics
D.    App tags

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. Users in the research department work with sensitive data. You need to prevent the research department users from accessing potentially unsafe websites by using hyperlinks embedded in email messages and documents. Users in other departments must not be restricted. What should you do from the Security & Compliance admin center?

A.    Create a data toss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition.
B.    Modify the default safe links policy.
C.    Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition.
D.    Create a new safe links policy.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
The users at your company use Dropbox to store documents. The users access Dropbox by using the MyApps portal. You need to ensure that user access to Dropbox is authenticated by using a Microsoft 365 identify. The documents must be protected if the data is downloaded to an untrusted device. What should you do?

A.    From the Intune admin center, configure the Conditional access settings.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Organizational relationships settings.
C.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Application proxy settings.
D.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Devices settings.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
You use Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage devices. Your company uses the following types of devices:
– Windows 10
– Windows 8.1
– Android
– iOS
Which devices can be managed by using co-management?

A.    Windows 10 and Windows 8.1 only.
B.    Windows 10, Android, and iOS only.
C.    Windows 10 only.
D.    Windows 10, Windows 8.1, Android, and iOS.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
You have Windows 10 Pro devices that are joined to an Active Directory domain. You plan to create a Microsoft 365 tenant and to upgrade the devices to Windows 10 Enterprise. You are evaluating whether to deploy Windows Hello for Business for SSO to Microsoft 365 services. What are two prerequisites of the deployment? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
B.    Smartcards.
C.    Microsoft Intune enrollment.
D.    TPM-enabled devices.
E.    Computers that have biometric hardware features.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E3 License. You enable auditing for your organization. What is the maximum amount of time data will be retained in the Microsoft 365 audit log?

A.    2 years
B.    1 year
C.    30 days
D.    90 days

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
HotSpot
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to implement Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for all the supported devices enrolled in mobile device management (MDM). What should you include in the device configuration profile? (To answer, select appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 10
Drag and Drop
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Which five actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Case Study 1 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd. is a consulting company that has a main office in Montreal and two branch offices in Seattle and New York. The company has the employees and devices shown in the following table:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?

A.    Server 1
B.    Server 2
C.    Server 3
D.    Server 4
E.    Server 5

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 52
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune admin center?

A.    a device compliance policy
B.    a device configuration profile
C.    an application policy
D.    an app configuration policy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 53
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the devices to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?

A.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, assign User1 the Cloud device administrator rote.
B.    From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Maximum number of devices per user setting.
C.    From the Intune admin center, add User1 as a device enrollment manager.
D.    From the Intune admin center, configure the Enrollment restrictions.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 54
……

Case Study 2 – A.Datum
A.Datum recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription. All user files are migrated to Microsoft 365. All mailboxes are hosted in Microsoft 365. The users in each office have email suffixes that include the country of the user, for example, user1@us.adatum.com or user2@uk.adatum.com. Each office has a security information and event management (SIEM) appliance. The appliances come from three different vendors. A.Datum uses and processes Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
……

NEW QUESTION 57
You need to meet the technical requirement for the EU PII data. What should you create?

A.    a retention policy from the Security & Compliance admin center
B.    a retention policy from the Exchange admin center
C.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Exchange admin center
D.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Security & Compliance admin center

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 58
You need to meet the technical requirement for large-volume document retrieval. What should you create?

A.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Security & Compliance admin center
B.    an alert policy from the Security & Compliance admin center
C.    a file policy from Microsoft Cloud App Security
D.    an activity policy from Microsoft Cloud App Security

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 59
Which report should the New York office auditors view?

A.    DLP policy matches
B.    DLP false positives and overrides
C.    DLP incidents
D.    Top Senders and Recipients

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 60
……


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NEW QUESTION 86
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse and a web application. The data warehouse will ingest 5 TB of data from an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server database daily. The web application will query the data warehouse. You need to design a solution to ingest data into the data warehouse.
Solution: You use AzCopy to transfer the data as text files from SQL Server to Azure Blob storage, and then you use PolyBase to run Transact-SQL statements that refresh the data warehouse database.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you need the best performance, then use PolyBase to import data into Azure SQL warehouse.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-migrate-data

NEW QUESTION 87
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse and a web application. The data warehouse will ingest 5 TB of data from an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server database daily. The web application will query the data warehouse. You need to design a solution to ingest data into the data warehouse.
Solution: You use the bcp utility to export CSV files from SQL Server and then to import the files to Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you need the best performance, then use PolyBase to import data into Azure SQL warehouse.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-migrate-data

NEW QUESTION 88
You have an Apache Storm cluster. You need to ingest data from a Kafka queue. Which component should you use to consume data emitted from Kafka?

A.    a bolt
B.    a Microsoft Azure Service Bus queue
C.    a spout
D.    Flume

Answer: C
Explanation:
To perform real-time computation on Storm, we create “topologies”. A topology is a graph of a computation, containing a network of nodes called “Spouts” and “Bolts”. In a Storm topology, a Spout is the source of data streams and a Bolt holds the business logic for analyzing and processing those streams. The org.apache.storm.kafka.KafkaSpout component reads data from Kafka.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-apache-storm-with-kafka
https://hortonworks.com/blog/storm-kafka-together-real-time-data-refinery/

NEW QUESTION 89
You plan to use Microsoft Azure IoT Hub to capture data from medical devices that contain sensors. You need to ensure that each device has its own credentials. The solution must minimize the number of required privileges. Which policy should you apply to the devices?

A.    iothubowner
B.    service
C.    registryReadWrite
D.    device

Answer: D
Explanation:
Per-Device Security Credentials. Each IoT Hub contains an identity registry For each device in this identity registry, you can configure security credentials that grant DeviceConnect permissions scoped to the corresponding device endpoints. By the way, for option A: an iothubowner would have all permissions.

NEW QUESTION 90
You have a Microsoft Azure Data Factory that loads data to an analytics solution. You receive an alert that an error occurred during the last processing of a data stream. You debug the problem and solve an error. You need to process the data stream that caused the error. What should you do?

A.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run the az dla job command.
B.    From Azure Cloud Shell, run the az batch job enable command.
C.    From PowerShell, run the Resume-AzureRmDataFactoryPipeline cmdlet.
D.    From PowerShell, run the Set-AzureRmDataFactorySliceStatus cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
ADF operates on data in batches known as slices. Slices are obtained by querying data over a date-time window, for example, a slice may contain data for a specific hour, day, or week. Such a query would use a date-time column notionally representing an effective date or a last-modified date.
https://medium.com/@benhatton/how-to-construct-time-slices-of-your-data-for-azure-data-factory-4977c2a85cde

NEW QUESTION 91
You have a Microsoft Azure Data Factory pipeline. You discover that the pipeline fails to execute because data is missing. You need to rerun the failure in the pipeline. Which cmdlet should you use?

A.    Set-AzureRmAutomationJob
B.    Set-AzureRmDataFactorySliceStatus
C.    Resume-AzureRmDataFactoryPipeline
D.    Resume-AzureRmAutomationJob

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use some PowerShell to inspect the ADF activity for the missing file error. Then simply set the dataset slice to either skipped or ready using the cmdlet to override the status.
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42723269/azure-data-factory-pipelines-are-failing-when-no-files-available-in-the-source

NEW QUESTION 92
You plan to analyze the execution logs of a pipeline to identify failures by using Microsoft power BI. You need to automate the collection of monitoring data for the planned analysis. What should you do from Microsoft Azure?

A.    Create a Data Factory Set
B.    Save a Data Factory Log
C.    Add a Log Profile
D.    Create an Alert Rule Email

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can import the results of a Log Analytics log search into a Power BI dataset so you can take advantage of its features such as combining data from different sources and sharing reports on the web and mobile devices. To import data from a Log Analytics workspace into Power BI, you create a dataset in Power BI based on a log search query in Log Analytics. The query is run each time the dataset is refreshed. You can then build Power BI reports that use data from the dataset.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/powerbi

NEW QUESTION 93
You have an Apache Hive cluster in Microsoft Azure HDInsight. The cluster contains 10 million data files. You plan to archive the data. The data will be analyzed monthly. You need to recommend a solution to move and store the data. The solution must minimize how long it takes to move the data and must minimize costs. Which two services should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Azure Queue storage
B.    Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
C.    Azure Table Storage
D.    Azure Data Lake
E.    Azure Data Factory

Answer: DE
Explanation:
D: To analyze data in HDInsight cluster, you can store the data either in Azure Storage, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen 1/Azure Data Lake Storage Gen 2, or both. Both storage options enable you to safely delete HDInsight clusters that are used for computation without losing user data.
E: The Spark activity in a Data Factory pipeline executes a Spark program on your own or on-demand HDInsight cluster. It handles data transformation and the supported transformation activities.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-use-data-lake-store
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/transform-data-using-spark

NEW QUESTION 94
You are building an Azure Analysis Services cube. The source data for the cube is located on premises in a Microsoft SQL Server database. You need to ensure that the Azure Analysis Services service can access the source data. What should you deploy to your Azure subscription?

A.    Azure Data Factory
B.    A network gateway in Azure
C.    A data gateway in Azure
D.    A site-to-site VPN

Answer: C
Explanation:
Connecting to on-premises data sources from and Azure AS server require an on-premises gateway.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/blog/on-premises-data-gateway-support-for-azure-analysis-services/

NEW QUESTION 95
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database that contains Personally Identifiable Information (PII). To mitigate the PII risk, you need to ensure that data is encrypted while the data is at rest. The solution must minimize any changes to front-end applications. What should you use?

A.    Transport Layer Security (TLS)
B.    Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
C.    A Shared Access Signature (SAS)
D.    The ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE T-SQL Function

Answer: B
Explanation:
Transparent data encryption (TDE) helps protect Azure SQL Database, Azure SQL Managed Instance, and Azure Data Warehouse against the threat of malicious activity. It performs real-time encryption and decryption of the database, associated backups, and transaction log files at rest without requiring changes to the application.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/transparent-data-encryption-azure-sql

NEW QUESTION 96
A company named Fabricam, Inc. has a web app hosted in Microsoft Azure. Millions of users visit the app daily. All of the user visits are logged in Azure Blob storage. Data analysts at Fabrikam built a dashboard that processes the user visit logs. Fabrikam plans to use an Apache Hadoop cluster on Azure HDInsight to process queries. The queries will access the data only once. You need to recommend a query execution strategy. What is the best to recommend using to achieve the goal? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A.    Load the text files to ORC files, and then run dashboard queries on the ORC files.
B.    Load the text files to sequence files, and then run dashboard queries on the sequence files.
C.    Run the queries on the text files directly.
D.    Load the text files to parquet files, and then run dashboard queries on the parquet files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
File format versatility and Intelligent caching: Fast analytics on Hadoop have always come with one big catch: they require up-front conversion to a columnar format like ORCFile, Parquet or Avro, which is time-consuming, complex and limits your agility. With Interactive Query Dynamic Text Cache, which converts CSV or JSON data into optimized in-memory format on-the-fly, caching is dynamic, so the queries determine what data is cached. After text data is cached, analytics run just as fast as if you had converted it to specific file formats.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-hdinsight-interactive-query-simplifying-big-data-analytics-architecture-and-operations/

NEW QUESTION 97
Hotspot
You plan to implement a Microsoft Azure Data Factory pipeline. The pipeline will have custom business logic that requires a custom processing step. You need to implement the custom processing step by using C#. Which interface and method should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/data-factory/v1/data-factory-use-custom-activities.md

NEW QUESTION 98
Drag and Drop
You have an analytics solution in Microsoft Azure that must be operationalized. You have the relevant data in Azure Blob storage. You use an Azure HDInsight Cluster to process the data. You plan to process the raw data files by using Azure HDInsight. Azure Data Factory will operationalize the solution. You need to create a data factory to orchestrate the data movement. Output data must be written back to Azure Blob storage. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 99
Drag and Drop
You need to implement a security solution for Microsoft Azure SQL database. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that users can see the data from their respective department only.
– Prevent administrators from viewing the data.
Which feature should you use for each requirement? (To answer, drag the appropriate features to the correct requirements. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 100
You deploy a Microsoft Azure SQL database. You create a job to upload customer data to the database. You discover that the job cannot connect to the database and fails. You verify that the database runs successfully in Azure. You need to run the job successfully. What should you create?

A.    a virtual network rule
B.    a network security group (NSG)
C.    a firewall rule
D.    a virtual network

Answer: C
Explanation:
If the application persistently fails to connect to Azure SQL Database, it usually indicates an issue with one of the following:
– Firewall configuration. The Azure SQL database or client-side firewall is blocking connections to Azure SQL Database.
– Network reconfiguration on the client side: for example, a new IP address or a proxy server.
– User error: for example, mistyped connection parameters, such as the server name in the connection string.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-troubleshoot-common-connection-issues

NEW QUESTION 101
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Cisco has endpoints that are designed to improve collaboration and address the widest range of use cases. Which of the following is not an endpoint?

A.    Phones and Desktop endpoints
B.    Video End Point Applications
C.    Room and Immersive Systems
D.    Mobile End Point Applications

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
AMP for endpoints decreases time to detection. What is Cisco’s security time to detection?

A.    8 hours or less
B.    7 hours or less
C.    10 hours or less
D.    6 hours or less

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
Cisco HyperFlex delivers complete hyperconvergence. Which of the following is not a feature of this solution?

A.    Portable database applications
B.    Flash-optimized system
C.    Flexible scaling
D.    High data availability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Cisco’s software defined access allows customers to get network speed, security and peace of mind. Which of them is not one of the capabilities?

A.    Secure from evolving threats
B.    Limits the network access
C.    Prepare for loT growth
D.    Adapt to mobile demands

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which three customer needs are addressed by Cisco solutions? (Choose three.)

A.    reducing day one costs
B.    improving productivity
C.    gaining competitive advantage
D.    focusing on current needs
E.    obtaining a wide variety of point products
F.    reducing TCO

Answer: BCF

NEW QUESTION 6
Cisco aims to transform IT operations with complete hyperconvergence. Which of the following is not a benefit?

A.    Data acquisition
B.    Always on-storage efficiency
C.    Predictable performance
D.    Independent scaling

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
Cisco 1000 series integrated services routers are fixed, high performance routers. Which is not a benefit of the routers?

A.    Connectivity
B.    Ease of use
C.    Exclusivity
D.    Comprehensive security

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
The Cisco DX Series is ideal for everyone who collaborates. Which is a feature of this product?

A.    Intuitive touchscreen
B.    Accessible from any browsers
C.    Dual screen options
D.    Real-time private and group chat

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following provides 360-degree contextual insights across users, devices, and applications using intent based networking?

A.    Cisco DNA
B.    Cisco Hosted Collaboration Solution
C.    Cisco Unified Computing System
D.    Cisco Meraki

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
What does Cisco call the intelligent, closed-loop, and self-optimizing system built on Cisco DNA?

A.    The Assured Network
B.    The Automated Network
C.    The Encryption Initiative
D.    The Network Intuitive

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Cisco converged infrastructure simplifies and speeds up infrastructure deployment with integrated and hyperconverged systems. Which of the following is not one of the solutions?

A.    FlashStack
B.    Hyperflex systems
C.    VirtualStack
D.    FlexPod

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Cisco TrustSec software-defined segmentation is simpler to enable than VLAN-based segmentation. Which of the following is not a feature of TrustSec?

A.    Diversified compliance
B.    Apply policies across the network
C.    Lower operational expenses
D.    Reduce risks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
Which device is installed in user devices and makes wireless connections between them and a network?

A.    Access point
B.    Bridge
C.    Router
D.    Client adapter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Customer relationship takes into consideration the conceptual nature of person as compared to their detailed nature. What does conceptual nature means?

A.    The conceptual nature of a person is about their knowledge and their intrinsic and extrinsic motivations.
B.    The conceptual nature of a person is about their work experience and their intrinsic and extrinsic motivations.
C.    The conceptual nature of a person is about their personality and their intrinsic and extrinsic motivations.
D.    The conceptual nature of a person is about their attitude and their intrinsic and extrinsic motivations.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
A variety of factors drive the target state of the business. Which of the following is not a factor?

A.    Values
B.    Mission
C.    Vision
D.    Client engagement

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
Which SWSS offer allows customers to choose the right level of service for on-premises, cloud, and hybrid environments?

A.    Enhanced SWSS
B.    Unified Communications SWSS
C.    Lifecycle SWSS
D.    Cisco Spark and WebEx SWSS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Which option lists steps to every sale?

A.    qualification and rapport
B.    rapport and awareness
C.    introduction and qualification
D.    awareness and education

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which sales resource is the best to use when approaching existing customers?

A.    Refresh Collab Website
B.    Promotions Center
C.    Cisco Install Base Portal
D.    Virtual Machine Placement tool

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Which purpose of the Quick Pricing tool is true?

A.    It obtains general design best practices.
B.    It provides pricing guidance on the optimal solution.
C.    It builds the BOM for you.
D.    It provides detailed design options for Cisco Collaboration.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
How can dramatic growth of unstructured work be addressed?

A.    flexible working environments and shared spaces
B.    increasing the number of cubicles
C.    decreasing collaboration spaces
D.    expand facilities

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which percent of IT spending is controlled by IT?

A.    50%
B.    40%
C.    60%
D.    80%

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
How many device(s) does the Cisco UCL Enhanced Plus support?

A.    10
B.    5
C.    2
D.    1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
Which option must you consider when closing a sale?

A.    customer budget
B.    customer lifecycle
C.    recurring revenue
D.    transactional revenue

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
Which Cisco phone has capability for all collaboration requirements, including intelligent proximity, Wi-Fi, and video?

A.    8865
B.    8841
C.    8845
D.    8861

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
For which purpose was the Cisco Spark Flex Plan designed?

A.    to simplify the transition to cloud-based collaboration solutions
B.    to simplify the transition to hybrid-based collaboration solutions
C.    to simplify the transition to all collaboration solutions
D.    to simplify the transition to premises-based collaboration solutions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
Which option does collaboration in context refer to?

A.    design documents used to sell the solution
B.    how customers purchase collaboration solutions
C.    how the customer uses collaboration to address their needs
D.    physical collaboration components

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
Which BOM tool must be referenced when design requirements are outside the scope of Cisco preferred architectures?

A.    Cisco Preferred Architecture Design Overview
B.    Cisco Solution Reference Network Designs Guide
C.    Preferred Architecture Cisco Validated Design
D.    Preferred Architecture Application Cisco Validated Design

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
……


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NEW QUESTION 1
You integrate a cloud-hosted Jenkins server and a new Azure DevOps deployment. You need Azure DevOps to send a notification to Jenkins when a developer commits changes to a branch in Azure Repos.
Solution: You create an email subscription to an Azure DevOps notification.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
You have an approval process that contains a condition. The condition requires that releases be approved by a team leader before they are deployed. You have a poky stating that approvals must occur within eight hours. You discover that deployments fail if the approvals take longer than two hours. You need to ensure that the deployments only fail if the approvals take longer than eight hours.
Solution: From Post-deployment conditions, you modify the Time between re-evaluation of gates option.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use a gate From Pre-deployment conditions instead.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/approvals/gates

NEW QUESTION 3
You are automating the build process for a Java-based application by using Azure DevOps. You need to add code coverage testing and publish the outcomes to the pipeline. What should you use?

A.    Cobertura
B.    Bullseye Coverage
C.    MSTest
D.    Coverlet

Answer: A
Explanation:
Use Publish Code Coverage Results task in a build pipeline to publish code coverage results to Azure Pipelines or TFS, which were produced by a build in Cobertura or JaCoCo format.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/tasks/test/publish-code-coverage-results

NEW QUESTION 4
You manage build pipelines and deployment pipelines by using Azure DevOps. Your company has a team of 500 developers. New members are added continual to the team. You need to automate the management of users and licenses whenever possible. Which task must you perform manually?

A.    modifying group memberships
B.    procuring licenses
C.    adding users
D.    assigning entitlements

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/organizations/accounts/migrate-to-group-based-resource-management?view=vsts&tabs=new-nav
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/azure/devops/memberentitlementmanagement/?view=azure-devops-rest-5.0

NEW QUESTION 5
During a code review, you discover many quality issues. Many modules contain unused variables and empty catch modes. You need to recommend a solution to improve the quality of the code. What should you recommend?

A.    In a Gradle build task, select Run Checkstyle.
B.    In an Xcode build task, select Use xcpretty from Advanced.
C.    In a Grunt build task, select Enabled from Control Options.
D.    In a Maven build task, select Run PMD.

Answer: D
Explanation:
PMD is a source code analyzer. It finds common programming flaws like unused variables, empty catch blocks, unnecessary object creation, and so forth. There is an Apache Maven PMD Plugin which allows you to automatically run the PMD code analysis tool on your project’s source code and generate a site report with its results.
https://pmd.github.io/

NEW QUESTION 6
Your company plans to use an agile approach to software development. You need to recommend an application to provide communication between members of the development team who work in locations around the world. The application must meet the following requirements:
– Provide the ability to isolate the members of different project teams into separate communication channels and to keep a history of the chats within those channels.
– Be available on Windows 10, Mac OS, iOS, and Android operating systems.
– Provide the ability to add external contractors and suppliers to projects.
– Integrate directly with Azure DevOps.
What should you recommend?

A.    Octopus
B.    Bamboo
C.    Microsoft Project
D.    Slack

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Your company uses Azure DevOps for the build pipelines and deployment pipelines of Java-based projects. You need to recommend a strategy for managing technical debt. Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Integrate Azure DevOps and SonarQube.
B.    Integrates Azure DevOPs and Azure DevTest Labs.
C.    Configure post-deployment approvals in the deployment pipeline.
D.    Configure pre-deployment approvals in the deployment pipeline.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 8
You are developing an open source solution that uses a GitHub repository. You create a new public project in Azure DevOps. You plan to use Azure Pipelines for continuous build. The solution will use the GitHub Checks API. Which authentication type should you use?

A.    A personal access token
B.    SAML
C.    GitHub App
D.    OAuth

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can authenticate as a GitHub App.
https://developer.github.com/apps/building-github-apps/authenticating-with-github-apps/

NEW QUESTION 9
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) implementation that is RBAC-enabled. You plan to use Azure Container Instances as a hosted development environment to run containers in the AKS implementation. You need to conjure Azure Container Instances as a hosted environment for running me containers in AKS. Which three actions should you perform the sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/virtual-kubelet

NEW QUESTION 10
HotSpot
Your company uses Team Foundation Server 2013 (TFS 2013). You plan to migrate to Azure DevOps. You need to recommend a migration strategy that meets the following requirements:
– Preserves the dates of Team Foundation Version Control change sets.
– Preserves the changes dates of work items revisions.
– Minimizes migration effort.
– Migrates all TFS artifacts.
What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=54274

Case Study 1 – Litware, Inc.
Litware, Inc. is an independent software vendor (ISV), Litware has a main office and five branch offices. The company’s primary application is a single monolithic retirement fund management system based on ASP.NET web forms that use logic written in VB.NET. Some new sections of the application are written in C#.
……

NEW QUESTION 41
What should you use to implement the code quality restriction on the release pipeline for the investment planning applications suite?

A.    a trigger
B.    a pre-deployment approval
C.    a post-deployment approval
D.    a deployment gate

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a release is created from a release pipeline that defines approvals, the deployment stops at each point where approval is required until the specified approver grants approval or rejects the release (or re-assigns the approval to another user).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/approvals/approvals

NEW QUESTION 42
To resolve the current technical issue, what should you do to the Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode command?

A.    Change the value of the ConfigurationMode parameter.
B.    Replace the Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode cmdlet with Register-AzureRmAutomationScheduledRunbook.
C.    Add the AllowModuleOverwrite parameter.
D.    Add the DefaultProfile parameter.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Change the ConfigurationMode parameter from ApplyOnly to ApplyAndAutocorrect. The Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode cmdlet registers an Azure virtual machine as an APS Desired State Configuration (DSC) node in an Azure Automation account.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.automation/register-azurermautomationdscnode?view=azurermps-6.13.0

NEW QUESTION 43
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso
Contoso plans to improve its IT development and operations processes implementing Azure DevOps principles. Contoso has an Azure subscription and creates an Azure DevOPs organization. The Azure DevOps organization includes:
……

NEW QUESTION 51
You add the virtual machines as managed nodes in Azure Automation State Configuration. You need to configure the computer in Group7. What should you do?

A.    Run the Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode Azure Powershell cmdlet.
B.    Modify the ConfigurationMode property of the Local Configuration Manager (LCM).
C.    Install PowerShell Core.
D.    Modify the RefreshMode property of the Local Configuration Manager (LCM).

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode cmdlet registers an Azure virtual machine as an APS Desired State Configuration (DSC) node in an Azure Automation account.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.automation/register-azurermautomationdscnode

NEW QUESTION 52
In Azure DevOps, you create Project3. You need to meet the requirements of the project. What should you do first?

A.    From Azure DevOps, create a service endpoint.
B.    From SonarQube, obtain an authentication token.
C.    From Azure DevOps, modify the build definition.
D.    From SonarQube, create a project.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The first thing to do is to declare your SonarQube server as a service endpoint in your VSTS/DevOps project settings.
https://docs.sonarqube.org/display/SCAN/Analyzing+with+SonarQube+Extension+for+vsts-TFS

NEW QUESTION 53
……


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NEW QUESTION 460
In a Client to Server scenario, which represents that the packet has already been checked against the tables and the Rule Base?

A.    Big I
B.    Little o
C.    Little i
D.    Big O

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 461
When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

A.    When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta.
B.    When an interface fails the delta claims the priority.
C.    When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority.
D.    When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/87911.htm

NEW QUESTION 462
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.    Incoming
B.    Internal
C.    External
D.    Outgoing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 463
During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.    Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation.
B.    Host having a Critical event found by IPS.
C.    Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus.
D.    Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 464
What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

A.    cpmq get
B.    show interface all
C.    cpmq set
D.    show multiqueue all

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

NEW QUESTION 465
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow?

A.    Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path.
B.    Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path.
C.    Firewall Path, Accept Path; Drop Path.
D.    Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 466
The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

A.    There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.
B.    The connection required a Security server.
C.    Acceleration is not enabled.
D.    The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 467
Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within ____.

A.    summary
B.    views
C.    reports
D.    checkups

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 468
Which of the following answer is right to export IPS profiles to copy to another management server?

A.    IPS profile export is not allowed.
B.    fwm dbexport -p <profile-name>.
C.    SmartDashboard -> IPS tab -> Profiles -> select profile, then right click and select “export profile”.
D.    ips_export_import export <profile-name>.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 469
SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in realtime. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

A.    Threat Emulation
B.    Mobile Access
C.    Mail Transfer Agent
D.    Threat Cloud

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 470
You want to gather data and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

A.    SmartEvent Client Info
B.    SecuRemote
C.    Check Point Protect
D.    Check Point Capsule Cloud

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471
After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

A.    cvpnd_restart
B.    cvpn_restart
C.    cvpnd restart
D.    cvpnrestart

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk34939

NEW QUESTION 472
Joey is preparing a plan for Security management upgrade. He wants to upgrade management to R80.x. What is the lowest supported version of the Security Management he can upgrade from?

A.    R76.
B.    R77.X with direct upgrade.
C.    Splat R75.40, he has to use an Advanced upgrade with Database Migration.
D.    Gaia R75.40, he has to use an Advanced upgrade with Database Migration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 473
In what way in Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

A.    SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections.
B.    SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets.
C.    SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances.
D.    SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm

NEW QUESTION 474
There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

A.    Using Web Services
B.    Using Mgmt_cli tool
C.    Using CLISH
D.    Using SmartConsole GUI console

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 475
By default, the R80 web API uses which content-type in its response?

A.    Java Script
B.    XML
C.    Text
D.    JSON

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 476
What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

A.    Firewall logs
B.    Configuration and database files
C.    System message logs
D.    OS and network statistics

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk92739

NEW QUESTION 477
What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.    fw ctl get int cpsead_stat
B.    cpstat cpsead
C.    fw ctl stat cpsemd
D.    cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 478
R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.    Versions R77 and higher
B.    Versions R76 and higher
C.    Versions R75.20 and higher
D.    Version R75 and higher

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/88/88e25b652f62aa6f59dc955e34f98d5c/CP_R80.10_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1538443232_ff63052c2c5a68c42c47eae9e15273c8&xtn=.pd f

NEW QUESTION 479
Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

A.    cpwd
B.    fwd
C.    cpd
D.    fwm

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 480
UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users. Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

A.    Ask
B.    Drop
C.    Inform
D.    Reject

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 481
……


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[28/Feb/2019 Updated] Free and Premium PassLeader AZ-100 Exam Questions (Total 145q)

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NEW QUESTION 128
You have an Azure tenant that contains two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. In Subscription1, you deploy a virtual machine named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 uses managed disks. You need to move Server1 to Subscription2. The solution must minimize administration effort. What should you do first?

A.    In Subscription2, create a copy of the virtual disk.
B.    From Azure PowerShell, run the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.
C.    Create a snapshot of the virtual disk.
D.    Create a new virtual machine in Subscription2.

Answer: B
Explanation:
To move existing resources to another resource group or subscription, use the Move-AzureRmResource cmdlet.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-move-resources#move-resources

NEW QUESTION 129
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines. Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance. You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center. What should you do?

A.    Add an extension to the virtual machines.
B.    Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine.
C.    Assign tags to the virtual machines.
D.    Configure locks for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

NEW QUESTION 130
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data?

A.    Azure SQL Database
B.    Azure Data Factory
C.    A virtual machine
D.    Azure Blob storage

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

NEW QUESTION 131
SIMULATION
Your company plans to store several documents on a public website. You need to create a container named bios that will host the documents in the storagelod8095859 storage account. The solution must ensure anonymous access and must ensure that users can browse folders in the container. What should you do from the Azure portal?

A.    See below explanation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
To create a container in the Azure portal, follow these steps:
Step 1. Navigate to your new storage account in the Azure portal.
Step 2. In the left menu for the storage account, scroll to the lob service section, then select Blobs. Select the + Container button.
– Type a name for your new container: bios.
– Set the level of public access to the container: Select anonymous access.

Step 3. Select OK to create the container.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-quickstart-blobs-portal

NEW QUESTION 132
SIMULATION
Your company plans to host in Azure the source files of several line-of-business applications. You need to create an Azure file share named corpsoftware in the storagelod8095859 storage account. The solution must ensure the corpsoftware can store only up to 250 GB of data. What should you do from the Azure portal?

A.    See below explanation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Step 1. Go to the Storage Account blade on the Azure portal:

Step 2. Click on add File Share button:

Step 3. Provide Name (storagelod8095859) and Quota (250 GB):

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-create-file-share

NEW QUESTION 133
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You regularly create and delete virtual machines. You need to identify unattached disks that can be deleted. What should you do?

A.    From Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer, view the Account Management properties.
B.    From the Azure portal, configure the Advisor recommendations.
C.    From Azure Cost Management, open the Optimizer tab and create a report.
D.    From Azure Cost Management, create a Cost Management report.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://cloud.netapp.com/blog/reduce-azure-storage-costs

NEW QUESTION 134
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template named ARM1.json. You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance. You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: From the Overview blade, you move the virtual machine to a different subscription.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

NEW QUESTION 135
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1. You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning. What is a possible cause of the Warning status?

A.    VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed.
B.    VM1 has an unmanaged disk.
C.    VM1 is stopped.
D.    A Recovery Services vault is unavailable.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

NEW QUESTION 136
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1. You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2. What should you do first?

A.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup.
B.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 backup.
C.    From the RSV1 blade, click Backup. From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click Backup.
D.    From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery Services vault.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm

NEW QUESTION 137
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that you use for testing. VM1 is protected by Azure Backup. You delete VM1. You need to remove the backup data stored for VM1. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the backup policy.
B.    Delete the Recovery Services vault.
C.    Stop the backup.
D.    Delete the storage account.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Backup provides backup for virtual machines — created through both the classic deployment model and the Azure Resource Manager deployment model — by using custom-defined backup policies in a Recovery Services vault. With the release of backup policy management, customers can manage backup policies and model them to meet their changing requirements from a single window. Customers can edit a policy, associate more virtual machines to a policy, and delete unnecessary policies to meet their compliance requirements.
Incorrect:
Not B: You can’t delete a Recovery Services vault if it is registered to a server and holds backup data. If you try to delete a vault, but can’t, the vault is still configured to receive backup data.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/updates/azure-vm-backup-policy-management/

NEW QUESTION 138
You have an Azure subscription. You have an on-premises virtual machine named VM1. The settings for VM1 are shown in the exhibit:

You need to ensure that you can use the disks attached to VM1 as a template for Azure virtual machines. What should you modify on VM1?

A.    Integration Services
B.    the network adapters
C.    the memory
D.    the hard drive
E.    the processor

Answer: D
Explanation:
From the exhibit we see that the disk is in the VHDX format. Before you upload a Windows virtual machines (VM) from on-premises to Microsoft Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX). Azure supports only generation 1 VMs that are in the VHD file format and have a fixed sized disk. The maximum size allowed for the VHD is 1,023 GB. You can convert a generation 1 VM from the VHDX file system to VHD and from a dynamically expanding disk to fixed-sized.

NEW QUESTION 139
SIMULATION
You plan to allow connections between the VNET01-USEA2 and VNET01-USWE2 virtual networks. You need to ensure that virtual machines can communicate across both virtual networks by using their private IP address. The solution must NOT require any virtual network gateways. What should you do from the Azure portal?

A.    See below explanation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual network peering enables you to seamlessly connect two Azure virtual networks. Once peered, the virtual networks appear as one, for connectivity purposes. Peer virtual network:
Step 1. In the Search box at the top of the Azure portal, begin typing VNET01-USEA2. When VNET01-USEA2 appears in the search results, select it.
Step 2. Select Peerings, under SETTINGS, and then select + Add, as shown in the following picture:

Step 3. Enter, or select, the following information, accept the defaults for the remaining settings, and then select OK.
– Name: myVirtualNetwork1-myVirtualNetwork2 (for example)
– Subscription: elect your subscription
– Virtual network: VNET01-USWE2 — To select the VNET01-USWE2 virtual network, select Virtual network, then select VNET01-USWE2. You can select a virtual network in the same region or in a different region.
Now we need to repeat steps 1-3 for the other network VNET01-USWE2.
Step 4. In the Search box at the top of the Azure portal, begin typing VNET01-USEA2. When VNET01-USEA2 appears in the search results, select it.
Step 5. Select Peerings, under SETTINGS, and then select + Add.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-connect-virtual-networks-portal

NEW QUESTION 140
Hotspot
You plan to create an Azure Storage account in the Azure region of East US 2. You need to create a storage account that meets the following requirements:
– Replicates synchronously
– Remains available if a single data center in the region fails
How should you configure the storage account? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates your data synchronously across three storage clusters in a single region. LRS would not remain available if a data center in the region fails GRS and RA GRS use asynchronous replication.
Box 2: ZRS only support GPv2.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-zrs

NEW QUESTION 141
……


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